TEAS 7 Practice Test 2023 (60 Questions with Explained Answers)

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welcome to the 2023 t7 practice test this test will have 60 Questions with explained answers that will help you prepare for the test be sure to resuscitate the like button by turning it white question one which of the following words is the adverb in the sentence below she tried calling her mom earlier today but left her a voicemail a she B called C earlier D mom the correct answer is C earlier earlier is the adverb in the sentence it reforms the verb tried earlier answers when Mom called question two which of the following sentences is punctuated correctly a My Nail Tech Anna told me that she adopted a new dog B My Nail Tech Anna told me that she adopted a new dog C My Nail Tech Anna told me that she adopted a new dog D My Nail Tech Anna told me that she adopted a new dog the correct answer is a My Nail Tech Anna told me that she adopted a new dog a positives are words or phrases that add meaning to nouns by defining them or giving them additional descriptors the a positive in this situation is Anna without the appositive the sentence would read as follows my nail technician told me that she adopted a dog which still makes sense the appositive phrase is now non-restrictive and has to be separated by commas question three which of the following exemplifies an exception to a spelling rule a receive B archive C Pace D Chief the correct answer is a receive the word receive is an exception to a common spelling rule I before E there are many exceptions to this rule the word receive follows the exception i before e except after c question four which of the following revisions would most improve the word choice in this sentence students are forced to eat sack lunches if they do not have enough money on their student accounts a change Force to required B change sack to bag C change enough to adequate D change account to bill the correct answer is a change Force to required the term forced is not a good option to use here because it makes the sentence read that the students are physically forced into eating using the word required makes it seems like the school has a rule about when a student is to be given a sack lunch instead of eating from the cafeteria question five which of the following corrects a grammatical error in the sentence below I think of my grandma when I eat her cookie recipe because she would always let me lick the bowl while she bakes the cookies in the oven a change Always to sometimes B change bakes to baked C change when to as D eat to eats the correct answer is B change bakes to baked baked matches the past tense of wood answer a is unnecessary C and D are not accurate and would not clarify the sentence question six what does the adverb in the sentence below refer to Sally walked quickly to her morning class because she was already late a the type of class that Sally walked to B how Sally walked C the reason Sally was late D what time of day Sally's class was the correct answer is B how Sally walked adverbs are words that alter a verb an adjective or another adverb this line uses the adverb quickly to describe Sally's walk to class question seven which of the following is identified as a preposition in the following sentence the dog ran and jumped on the porch while it was raining a dog B ran C on D was the correct answer is C on a preposition is a word or group of words used to convey Direction location Place time pronouns usually precede a noun the term on in this sentence indicates the location of the dog's jump question 8 which word from the sentence below is a pronoun the waitress was asked to bring fresh drinks to the table before she went back to the kitchen a waitress B asked C Fresh D she the correct answer is D she pronouns are words that can be used in place of nouns frequently to avoid having to repeat the same noun repeatedly pronouns can also designate objects ideas locations and people just like nouns question 9 which of the following completes the sentence below blank surprised that they got blank package in only three days a there there be there there see there there D there there the correct answer is a there there there replaces the two words they are if the sentence is read they are surprised that they got their package in only three days it makes sense the word there shows belonging and shows who the package belongs to question 10 the sentence below is what type of sentence the dog runs to his neighbor's house every day a imperative B exclamatory C interrogative D declarative the correct answer is D declarative the most typical sentence structure in English is a declarative one it is written in the present tense and usually ends with a period the topic typically comes before the verb question 11 which of the following completes the sentence below she could blank anything from her job blank poor planning for the upcoming fiscal year a accept except B take accept C accept accept D take accept the correct answer is a accept accept refers to taking or receiving something when it is provided as well as receiving it with consent or favor the preposition except is most frequently used to signify not including question 12. which of the following is an example of a simple sentence a Sally walked B Sally walked with confidence on the stage see Sally ran as fast as she could down the basketball court D Sally talked on the phone all day talking to her best friend the correct answer is a Sally walked a simple sentence typically contains a subject and a verb only the subject in this sentence is Sally the verb in the sentence is walked there are exceptions to the simple sentence rules question 13 which of the following completes the sentence below to blank should I make the check payable to a whom be who see who's D who's the correct answer is a whom the pronouns who and whom denote the subject and object of a sentence respectively we wouldn't use the word which as we're talking about a person the object pronoun whom is required because the Article 2 comes before the blank question 14 which of the following Expressions adheres to the capitalization rules a my grandma Patsy B my Uncle Scott C Brent's Uncle D my brother John the correct answer is a my grandma Patsy option A is being used as a title so Grandma Patsy should be capitalized typically using an adjective in terms of family adjectives the family objective should be lowercase question 15 which of the following sets of words should be used to fill in the blanks in the sentence below the store states that blank closed today but that it will open blank doors early tomorrow morning a it's it's B it's it's C it's it's D it's it's the correct answer is a it's it's the first blank should include the contraction for it is the second blank should show ownership if the sentence read the store states that it is closed today but it will open its doors early tomorrow morning the scientific method is a systematic approach to understanding the natural world it involves several steps including observation hypothesis development experimentation and data analysis the goal of the scientific method is to develop and test hypotheses in order to gain a better understanding of the natural world and make predictions about future events the scientific method is used in a variety of fields including biology chemistry physics and Earth science question 16 what is the scientific method a a random approach to understanding the natural world B A systematic approach to understanding the natural world C an emotional approach to understanding the natural world d a spiritual approach to understanding the natural world the correct answer is b a systematic approach to understanding the natural world the passage defines the scientific method as a systematic approach to understanding the natural world question 17 what are the steps involved in the scientific method a observation hypothesis development experimentation and conclusion B observation hypothesis development experimentation and data analysis C observation prediction experimentation and conclusion D observation prediction analysis and conclusion the correct answer is B observation hypothesis development experimentation and data analysis the passage describes several steps involved in the scientific method including observation hypothesis development experimentation and data analysis question 18 what is the goal of the scientific method a to make random observations about the natural world B to develop and test hypotheses in order to gain a better understanding of the natural world and make predictions about future events C to form beliefs about the natural world without testing them D to make emotional connections to the Natural World the correct answer is B to develop and test hypotheses in order to gain a better understanding of the natural world and make predictions about future events the passage states that the goal of the scientific method is to develop and test hypotheses in order to gain a better understanding of the natural world and make predictions about future events question 19 in which Fields is the scientific method used a psychology sociology anthropology and Linguistics B philosophy literature art and music C history political science economics and law D biology chemistry physics and Earth science the correct answer is D biology chemistry physics and Earth science the passage states that the scientific method is used in a variety of fields including biology chemistry physics and Earth Science question 20 why is the scientific method important a because it allows us to make random observations about the natural world B because it allows us to form beliefs about the natural world without testing them C because it allows us to develop and test hypotheses and make predictions about future events D because it allows us to make emotional connections to the Natural World the correct answer is C because it allows us to develop and test hypotheses and make predictions about future events the passage states that the scientific method is important because it allows us to develop and test hypotheses and make predictions about future events which can help us gain a better understanding of the natural world the structure of a written work can greatly impact its Effectiveness in fiction writing the structure is often organized by a plot which typically includes an exposition rising action climax falling action and resolution non-fiction writing on the other hand may use a variety of structures such as chronological cause and effect problem and solution or compare and contrast the structure of a written work can help the reader understand the author's message and stay engaged with the content question 21 how can the structure of a written work impact its Effectiveness a it has no impact on its Effectiveness B it only has a minor impact on its Effectiveness C it can greatly impact its Effectiveness D it only impacts the writer not the reader the correct answer is C it can greatly impact its Effectiveness the passage states that the structure of a written work can greatly impact its Effectiveness question 22 what is the typical structure of a plot in fiction writing a chronological cause and effect problem in solution or compare and contrast B introduction body and conclusion C Exposition rising action climax falling action and resolution D thesis supporting paragraphs and conclusion the correct answer is C Exposition rising action climax falling action and resolution the passage states that the structure of a plot in fiction write typically includes an exposition rising action climax falling action and resolution question 23 what is the purpose of the rising action in a plot a to resolve the conflict B to build suspense and tension C to introduce the characters in setting D to provide a resolution to the story the correct answer is B to build suspense and tension the passage states that the rising action in a plot is meant to build suspense and tension question 24 what are some structures used in non-fiction writing a Exposition rising action climax falling action and resolution B introduction body and conclusion C thesis supporting paragraphs and conclusion D chronological cause and effect problem in solution or compare and contrast the correct answer is D chronological cause and effect problem in solution or compare and contrast the passage states that non-fiction in writing may use a variety of structures such as chronological cause and effect problem in solution or compare and contrast question 25 why is the structure of a written work important for the reader a because it only impacts the writer not the reader B because it can confuse the reader C because it is irrelevant to the reader D because it helps the reader understand the author's message the correct answer is D because it helps the reader understand the author's message the passage states that the structure of a written work can help the reader understand the author's message and stay engaged with the content in persuasive writing the author's goal is to convince the reader to take a particular action or adopt a certain Viewpoint to achieve this goal persuasive writing often includes persuasive techniques such as emotional appeals logical appeals and ethical appeals emotional appeals attempt to sway the reader's emotions logical appeals use reasoning and evidence to support a claim and ethical appeals appeal to the reader's sense of morality these techniques can be used in various combinations to make a persuasive argument question 26 what is the goal of persuasive writing a to entertain the reader with a story B to provide the reader with factual information C to convey convince the reader to take a particular action or adopt a certain Viewpoint D to describe a particular object or event the correct answer is C to convince the reader to take a particular action or adopt a certain Viewpoint the passage states that the goal of persuasive writing is to convince the reader to take a particular action or adopt a certain viewpoint question 27 what are some common persuasive techniques used in writing a Exposition rising action climax falling action and resolution B emotional appeals logical appeals and ethical appeals C chronological cause and effect problem and solution or compare and contrast D introduction body and conclusion the correct answer is B emotional appeals logical appeals and ethical appeals the passage states that persuasive writing often includes persuasive techniques such as emotional appeals logical appeals and ethical Appeals question 28 what is the purpose of emotional appeals in persuasive writing a to provide factual information to the reader B to appeal to the reader's sense of morality C to present a logical argument D to sway the reader's emotions the correct answer is D to sway the reader's emotions the passage states that emotional appeals attempt to sway the reader's emotions question 29 what is the purpose of logical appeals in persuasive writing a to sway the reader's emotions B to use reasoning and evidence to support a claim C to appeal to the reader's sense of morality D to present a creative argument the correct answer is B to use reasoning and evidence to support a claim the passage states that logical appeals use reasoning and evidence to support a claim question 30 how can persuasive techniques be used in writing a in isolation to make a weak argument B by confusing the reader with irrelevant information C by presenting personal opinions without any evidence D in various combinations to make a persuasive argument the correct answer is D in various combinations to make a persuasive argument the passage states that persuasive techniques such as emotional appeals logical appeals and ethical appeals can be used in various combinations to make a persuasive argument question 31 a lecture was one hour and 36 minutes long the lecture began at zero eight five zero what time did the lecture end a 1056 B 1026 C 1036 D 1006 the correct answer is b 1026-0850 equals 8 50 am zero eight five zero to zero nine five zero equals one hour zero nine five zero plus 36 minutes equals 10 26 6 question 32 a department store is having a sale all prices are reduced by 60 percent calculate the original price of an article whose sale price is forty five dollars a 112.50 b 88.89 c 124.75 d 98.98 the correct answer is a 112.50 if prices are reduced by sixty percent then the customer is paying forty percent of the original cost forty percent equals forty five dollars allow X to be the original price of the article forty over one hundred equals forty five over X cross multiply forty x equals four thousand five hundred x equals one hundred twelve dollars fifty cents question thirty three the price of one pound of bananas is two dollars thirty seven cents how many pounds of bananas can be bought with eighteen dollars a 6.57 B 5.75 c 7 D 7.59 the correct answer is D 7.59 18 divided by 2.37 equals 7.59 pounds question 34. given that four centimeters on a map represents seven miles on the ground calculate the distance in miles between two points which are 12 centimeters apart on the map a 21 miles b 14 miles C 28 miles D 48 miles the correct answer is a 21 miles 4cm equals 7 miles 12 centimeters equals x miles 4X equals 84x equals 84 divided by 4X equals 21 miles question 35 the side of a square is 5.54 cm long what is the area of the square a 30.69 cm B 25.67 CM C 22.16 CM D 20.54 CM the correct answer is a 30.69 CM a equals s times S A equals 5.54 times 5.54 a equals 30.69 question 36 a patient weighs 150 pounds what is their weight in kilograms a 300 kilograms B 68 kilograms C 75 kilograms D 175 kilograms the correct answer is B 68 kilograms there are 2.2 kilograms in each pound 150 divided by 2.2 equals 68.18 question 37 an infant weighs 6 pounds what is the weight in grams a 13.2 grams b 1 320 grams C 2727 grams D 1000 grams the correct answer is C 2727 grams six pounds is 2.72 kilograms there are one thousand grams in each kilogram 2.72 times 1000 equals 2727 grams question 38 how many milliliters are in one teaspoon a five milliliters B 10 milliliters C 15 milliliters D 20 milliliters the correct answer is a five milliliters there are five milliliters in one teaspoon question 39 how many milliliters are in one tablespoon a five milliliters B 15 milliliters C 20 milliliters D 25 milliliters the correct answer is C 20 milliliters there are five milliliters in one teaspoon and four teaspoons in one tablespoon five times four equals twenty question forty a person is six feet four inches tall which of the following represents the height of this person a 64 inches B 72 inches C 76 inches D 82 inches the correct answer is C 76 inches six feet times 12 inches per foot equals 72 inches plus 4 equals 76 inches question 41 a room is 10 feet by 35 feet what is the area of this room a 90 square feet B 25 square feet C 45 square feet D 350 square feet the correct answer is D 350 square feet area is length times width 10 times 35 equals 350 question 42 a patient is ordered to receive 1 250 milliliters of fluid how many liters is this a 0.125 B 1.25 C 12.5 D 6.25 the correct answer is B 1.25 there are 1 000 milliliters in one liter 1250 divided by 1000 equals 1.25 question 43 a wound measures two centimeters long by three centimeters wide what is the surface area of this wound a one centimeter B five centimeters C six centimeters D 10 centimeters the correct answer is C six centimeters area is length times width two centimeters times three centimeters equals six centimeters question 44 Staffing guidelines on a unit indicate there should be six nurses for 30 patients and one additional nurse for every three patients over thirty how many nurses should there be for 36 patients a 6 B 7 C 8 D nine the correct answer is C 8 36 minus 30 equals six six divided by three equals two six plus two equals eight question forty five Maria received the following scores on tests for a science class which of these scores represents the median 96 98 96 8292 a 96 B 98 C 82 D 92 the correct answer is a 96 median refers the item in the middle of the set when the items arranged in numerical order in this case 82 92 96 9698 question 46 what is the name of the appendages that receive communication from other cells a neuron B axon C dendrite D transistor the correct answer is C dendrite appendages called dendrites are made to receive signals from neighboring cells they take the form of projections with a tree-like structure that are triggered by other neurons and carry the electrochemical charge to the cell body or more rarely directly to the axons question 47 carbohydrates are broken down in the digestive system where does this process begin a the stomach B the esophagus C the mouth D the small intestine the correct answer is C the mouth when you chew Foods salivary amylase is produced which triggers the start of digestion all food begins the digestion process in the mouth question 48 which of the following is not a function of the kidneys a houses urine B produce vitamin D C cleanse the blood D release erythropoietin the correct answer is a houses urine the kidneys do not house or store urine instead they release urine to be excreted the part of the urinary system that stores urine is the bladder question 49 after blood leaves the right ventricle where does it travel to next a pulmonary artery B pulmonary vein C left ventricle D left atrium the correct answer is a pulmonary artery blood is driven into the pulmonary artery through the pulmonary semilunar valve when the right ventricle contracts it then moves on to the lungs the pulmonary veins allow the blood to escape the lungs after receiving oxygen there question 50 a person has Blood Type O Negative what blood type may this person receive blood from a a b negative B A negative C O Negative D B negative the correct answer is C O Negative while O negative people can donate blood to anyone Universal donors they can only receive blood from other O Negative individuals these individuals are in high demand because of their ability to donate blood to anyone question 51 what is the name of the tissue that separates the lower ventricles of the heart a interventricular septum B myocardium C pericardium D visceral pericardium the correct answer is a interventricular septum the strong wall dividing the ventricles the heart's lower Chambers from one another is known as the interventricular septum when there is a hole or defect in the IVs different congenital cardiac diseases can occur question 52 what type of muscle is myocardium heart muscle a striated B smooth C skeletal d flat the correct answer is a striated skeletal muscle smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are the other kinds of muscular tissues found in vertebrates it is a striated involuntary muscle that makes up the majority of the heart's wall question 53 what uses mechanisms that direct impulses toward a nerve cell's body a monocytes B dendrite C axons D nuclei the correct answer is B dendrite incorporating synaptic inputs and deciding how much an action potential is generated by a neuron are both tasks that dendrites are crucial for the branching protoplasmic extensions of a nerve cell known as dendrites transmit the electrochemical stimulus from neighboring neural cells to the cell body question 54 which of the following is not an action that the endocrine system is responsible for a blood glucose control B hormone release C regulates hormones D absorbing fats form digestive system the correct answer is D absorbing fats form digestive system the lymphatic system is responsible for absorbing fats from the digestive system the endocrine system is responsible for many actions all of which include blood glucose control hormone release and regulation of hormones question 55 which of the following is not part of the lymphatic system a tonsils B spleen C appendix D pancreas the correct answer is D pancreas a crucial part in transforming the food we eat into energy for the body's cells is played by the pancreas there are two primary uses for the pancreas it contains endocrine functions that control blood sugar and an exocrine activity that aids in digestion question 56 the atomic number is the same as a number of protons B number of neutrons C binding energy D velocity the correct answer is a number of protons the periodic system in which the elements are grouped in order of increasing numbers of protons in the nucleus uses the atomic number to identify a chemical element the atomic number is also the quantity of protons in the neutral atom which is always equal to the quantity of electrons question 57 which term describes the destruction of red blood cells a erythropoiesis b hemolysis c gliosis d hemolosis the correct answer is B hemolysis hemolysis is the term for the breakdown of red blood cells question 58 which of the following is not part of the appendicular skeleton a scapula B pelvic bone C ulna D temporal the correct answer is D temporal the skull's bones including the temporal bone the vertebral column the ribs and the sternum make up the axial skeleton the bones making up the hip and shoulder girdles as well as the bones of the arm and leg such as the ulna are all part of the appendicular skeleton that is fibula question 59 the process of blank involves the movement of water molecules from a solution containing a high concentration of water molecules to one containing a lower concentration through the partially permeable membrane of a cell a photosynthesis B glycolysis c lysolysis d osmosis the correct answer is D osmosis the process of osmosis involves the movement of water molecules from a solution containing a high concentration of water molecules to one containing a lower concentration through the partially permeable membrane of a cell question 60 which of the following bases is not found in DNA a thymine B adenine C purine D guanine the correct answer is C purine the four nucleotides bases found in DNA are adenine cytosine guanine thymine these can be remembered with the acronym acgt thank you for watching this video we hope you enjoyed it check out these other videos that can help you with your future studies don't forget to resuscitate the like button and subscribe to our Channel and please share this video with your fellow nursing friends
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Channel: All Healthcare Careers
Views: 36,494
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Keywords: teas 7 practice test, teas 7 practice questions, teas 7 practice exam
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Length: 32min 41sec (1961 seconds)
Published: Sun May 21 2023
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