AP TS EAPCET 2024 | 12th Physics Practice Questions For 30+ 😎 One shot💡 Shreyas Sir

my dear J Warriors welcome aboard to the EAP sat Telangana and Andhra Pradesh session and this session is exclusively for all those Ultra Legends who want to prepare for the last minute and today I'm going to do mainly the 12th standard topics and we will have a separate lecture for 11th standard topics so I hope you guys are all excited and namaskar miru unaru quickly put it up in the chat box hello hello hello prise adya Rishi sud NAIA yes somia hello EO hello gri I hope I am audible as well as visible to all of you perfect perfect perfect and this is your captain stas going live for the physics questions practice so let's do this all the topnotch questions which you can expect in your upcoming AP or Telangana EAP sat or em examination right okay good good good afternoon good afternoon everyone nice to see all of you so let's begin with the class without wasting time and here is the first question have you smashed the like button have you not done that yet please do that yes there is a like button down there do that or else YouTube will distract you you'll forget where the channel was so subscribe also so subscribe and like that's a mandatory done all the students from Andra Telangana done it very good okay kinetic energy of photo electrons emitted by photosens sensitive material depends upon the intensity of the incident Photon SEC and the reason said is the ejection of electrons from the surface of the metal is possible with frequency below the threshold frequency I think the reason definitely is wrong reason definitely is wrong how can the frequency be below how can it be below the threshold frequency this is definitely wrong the reason is wrong the frequency actually should be more than your threshold frequency kinetic energy of the electron depends on the intensity this is also wrong in fact the kinetic energy depends on the frequency of the incident Photon it depends on the frequency not intensity the word intensity is also wrong so uh basically uh you know uh you know this is definitely a wrong statement both assertion and reason yes both assertion and reason should be false both assertion and reason should be false just check this out yes this is the correct answer very nice amazing amazing both are false cool clear shall we go ahead to the next question my dear Warriors here comes the next question the wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen is equal to the second line of Balmer series for Hy hydrogen like ion then what is the atomic number Z of the hydrogen like ion that is it's some other element it's some other element but we do not know what is the atomic number of it so what do I do okay let's have a look the wavelength of the first line of the Lyman series Lyman is when the transition happens from higher shell to n is equal to one that is the ground level for a hydrogen atom so for a hydrogen atom you 1 by Lambda will be R rbg's constant Z is 1 into 1 by 1 squ - 1 by since it is the first line since it is the first line it will be from 2 to 1 so first line is from n isal 2 to n is equal 1 last line is from n is equal to Infinity to n is equal to 1 so therefore I will get 1 by Lambda is equal to Red's constant this will be 1 - 1 by 4 so therefore 1 by Lambda will be redbugs constant into nothing but 3x 4 now going to the second part for the second line of Balmer series for hydrogen like atom so 1 by Lambda will be ridw Works constant Zed I don't know so I'll just put Zed over here second line the second line of Balmer series Balmer is when the transition happens to two transition happens from higher orbit to n is equal to 2 2 first line is from 3 to 2 second line is from 4 to 2 so this will be 1X 4 right so this will be nothing but r z s this will be 1X 4 - 1 by 16 so this will be R into z s now this LCM will be 16 so 4 - 1 is 3 so 3 by 16 that's what I'm going to get over here but the wavelength is same so Lambda I can take it from here and put it over here and see what do you get so just take 1 by Lambda from here and put it over here so it is R * 3 divided by 4 r r will cancel 3 3 will cancel 4 4 will cancel so basically I'll be just left with 1 is equal to z s by 4 4 goes with 16 4 times that means z s is equal to 4 or rather Z is equal to 2 so the answer should be D option yes it is the D option no it is not B it is option D it is option D correct correct yes bar bani I'll be conducting the class for J Advanced sat the class will be hardly for 1 hour okay moving on to the next question coming up on your screen the D Broly wavelength of neutron at 27° C is Lambda what will be the wavelength at a newer higher temperature what has temperature got to do with the D brogly wavelength when you increase the temperature the randomness the kinetic energy of the molecules increases because of which the momentum increases once the momentum changes the D Broly wavelength will change that is the relationship so we all know D Broly wavelength is the Plank's constant by momentum which is also which is also root of 2 * Mass * kinetic energy that is what it is or you can just leave it at momentum and you can write the momentum as mass into velocity whenever you talk about temperature and its relation with velocity remember remember remember that the velocity is always proportional to the root of temperature you take the RMS speed of molecules you take the speed of sound you take any such formula most probable speed velocity will be something root times temperature by something so it is is always proportional to the root of temperature so that means from this can I not say can I not say therefore Lambda is inversely proportional to the root of temperature because Lambda is inversely proportional to velocity velocity is directly related to temperature so Lambda is indirectly inversely related to the root of temperature so therefore the question is what is the new Broly wavelength so Lambda 2 by Lambda 1 will be root of T1 by T2 what is T1 and what is T2 don't put 27 it is in Celsius convert it into Kelvin so 27 Celsius in Kelvin will be 300 Kelvin you need to add 273 to it 927 add 273 you will get 1,200 so this will basically become 1x4 which will become 1 by 2 so therefore Lambda 2 by Lambda will be 1X 2 therefore Lambda 2 will be just Lambda by 2 that is the final answer and let's have a look at it yes option D again option D got it my dear Warriors everyone clear sir I'm preparing for bitsat for barma can you please help me definitely Ro we'll be conducting bitsat classes also very good somia awesome everybody answer chendi in the CL in the chat box don't do unnecessary time pass answer jendi in the chat box okay very good very good karali very good loesh yes yes s answer D is the correct answer what about this the D Broly wavelength of the electron and the wavelength of the photon D Broly wavelength of the electron electron is a mass matter it's the D Broly wavelength and Photon photon is light the wavelength of light these two wavelengths happen to be the same what is the ratio of the energy of the light particle which is Photon and the momentum of the electron that is the question okay read the question again and again so that you can understand it let's try it out the ratio between the energy of the photon the energy of the photon upon the momentum of that electron the momentum of the electron well what is the energy of a photon formula what is the energy of a photon formula come on energy of a photon is given by H C by Lambda so it is nothing but H C divided Lambda right what is the momentum of an electron using D brly formula it is nothing but H by Lambda these two lambdas are same Lambda Lambda cancels H H also cancels so what am I left with only the number c only only the number c which is option b yes that is the correct answer B is the correct answer wow very good kizar grow very good excellente no Rolex no sanite is not option C it is option b unless you meant sir the answer is C okay cool very good very good excellent day moving on I hope you guys are enjoying these questions and learning a lot and I hope you have smashed the like button in case you haven't done that do it right right now if you want more emat content on this channel guys if you don't Sher the love then I won't be motivated to conduct more classes understand that so moving on to the next one the ratio of the radius of the nuclei aluminium and T 125 27 here is approximately how much okay interesting question how is the radius of the nucleus even related to any of this given information remember the chapter of nucleus and you will realize that the radius is directly proportional to the atomic mass number whole raised to 1x 3 so therefore the radius of Al upon the radius of te will be nothing but the cube root of cube root of atomic mass number of Al upon atomic mass number of T so what is the atomic mass number of Al well that's 27 of T it is basically 125 these are perfect cubes 27's cube root is 3 125 is cube root is 5 because 5 cube is 125 3 cube is 1 20 sorry 3 cube is just 27 so that's it the ratio is nothing but 3 is 5 which is obviously 6 is 10 you multiply by 2 3 into 2 is 6 5 into 2 is 10 so answer should be D yes it is option b very good ADC office vij wow what names you come up with yes San the answer is D yes this Rolex is D correct correct option is there s yep very good s very good nagari awesomeness awesomeness moving on to the next question coming up on your screen okay ready okay so here is the first uh yeah here is the question when the number of nucleons in the nucleus increases what happens to the binding energy per nucleon when the number of nuclear particles nuclear particles inside the nucleus they are called nucleons so when you have heavy heavy heavy nucleus what happens does The Binding energy per nucleon increase decrease or does it decrease then increase or increase then decrease this is a straightforward answer this is a straightforward answer yes correcto it first increases and then decreases if you remember there is a nice ground for it also it goes up like this and comes down it is the highest for iron so The Binding energy per nucleon graph as you increase the number of nuclear particles this is how it goes these things undergo fishion this things undergo fusion exactly nuclear forces this is assertion arise from strong force between the protons and neutrons guys think about it between a proton and a neutron if there is a nuclear force is it because of kum's force definitely not so assertion is definitely false do you understand it assertion is 100% it is false what about the reason nuclear forces they are independent of the charge of the nucleons yes nuclear forces are independent that is definitely correct that is definitely correct it it depends on the spin it does does not depend on the mass it does not depend on the charge for sure so guys reason is correct assertion is wrong reason is correct assertion is wrong exactly exactly proud of all of you perfect perfect yes saan I'll tell you something emide exam will be average exam it will not be very easy it will be an average exam it's all about speed and your mental calmness so please remain calm check out the cheat code videos which are upad uploaded just focus on the major High weightage topics you can definitely crack it don't think about past exams or don't think about J Advan bitset or any other exam you will crack it just stay motivated just stay calm throughout the exam practice as many questions and pyqs that's all practice many many models don't sit and do Theory right now that's all I would say okay these are the inputs to a gate and X is the output as per the following time graph which kind of gate do you think this is which kind of gate do you think this is will the cheat codes work the answer to that is only for less than 5% of the questions very few questions out of 100 questions five questions you can apply the cheat codes for don't apply for many and that to towards the end of the exam not at the beginning not in the middle and you need to understand when to use it when not to use it so if you watch my older videos you will see how to guess options how to uh apply TKA strategy how to blindly mark an answer without solving the question I have done some videos on the internet you can find it on Google on YouTube but do not use it every single time you need to be little bit careful only for few questions otherwise you will lose out a lot of marks and answer is orgate let's find out whether it is orgate see Zero who is the input a b c d are the inputs everything is zero then the output is also zero any one of them becomes one the output is one this is 0o this is one this is 0 this is 0o any one of them see this is 0o this is 0 this is one this is 0 again the output is 1 1 0 1 0 again the output is 1 so so anyone becomes High any one of them becomes High the output becomes High one of them at least should be correct the output will be high that means it is orate if everything has to be high only then it will be high then it will be a and gate understand the difference cool shall we go ahead to the next question guys very good yes awesome awesome awesome uh guys don't believe all such rumors last day the paper is tough first day the paper is easy who tells you all these things right so don't believe anything like that these are all rumors they are baseless don't believe all this even if it is tough you have to face it you cannot do anything okay let's say it is tough what will you do will you sit and cry will you curse your fate nothing you can do about it you have to prepare for it that's it well what guarantee that first day only the paper might be very tough you know imagine you think sir my paper was on the first day and I thought it will be easy but the paper came tough that will be even worse so always prepare for the worst and hope for the best don't worry about it study this is the time which you should be studying don't worry about the rumors atomic mass number is this much the atomic mass number of this carbon is this much The Binding energy of the neutrons will be how much so remember in inside the nucleus versus outside the nucleus right the masses of the protons and the neutrons are completely different and that is why you will get a mass defect the mass defect is the difference of the masses which you are expecting versus what is actual so what you are expecting is 13 what you are getting is 13.35 so it will be nothing but 13. 335 minus basically 13 which is 0. 0 335 atomic mass unit but that is not the question the question is what is The Binding energy binding energy is the mass defect in AMU into 931 Mega electron volt so take this 0.335 multiplied by 931 you will get the answer in mega electron volt and check if it is 1.68 Mega electron volt check it if it is 1.68 mega electon Volt option number a no it is not B it is option number a yes yes normalization is there in all these exams so basically you know you need to understand that they will keep the difficulty almost similar just like in J Mains or any other exam even in bitsat you know you have multiple shifts even in VI e there were multiple shifts so they will always try to ensure the paper level is almost the same so they will normalize it in some or the other way in some or the other way okay so so keep that in mind moving on to the next question on your screen in an unbiased PN Junction diode the thickness of the dition layer is 7 into 10^ - 6 the potential difference barrier is 7 volt the electric field in this region is how much that is the question although it looks like a semiconductor question it is not understand that in your PN Junction when you have a depletion layer when you have a depletion layer all right there is a voltage difference and there is electric field and we all know the relationship between them electric field magnitude wise is the voltage difference upon the width of the depletion layer that's it do I know the electric field No in fact that's what I have to find do I know the voltage difference yes this is the voltage barrier which is 7 the potential barrier that 7 is over here the width of it is 7 into 10^ - 6 this is 7 into 10 ^ - 1 7 7 cancels -1 - 6 becomes - 5 so it will become 10 to the power 5 which is option b and it is the correct answer option b how many of you said option b very good s very good banii awesome awesome awesome awesome we'll do a separate video of you know the rank percentile marks Etc that you can expect right now don't concentrate on all those things just concentrate on you know solving the question paper solve more and more questions that's all okay that is not the time in a semiconductor diode the barrier potential the voltage barrier which is there what does it really oppose the diffusion of what gets diffused think about it when you have a PN Junction right there is diffusion of electrons from n side to P side and holes from P side to n side that is diffusion drift happens for electrons from P side to n side and holes from n side to P side diffusion is for majority charge carriers in N what is majority electrons those electrons go from n to P in P type what is majority holes they diffuse from P to n so diffusion is always associated with whatever is there in majority drift is always there associated with minority so guys diffusion will be for majority charge carriers from both P type as well as n type that is option C yes C for cap to correct yeses aord thank you so much cool okay next question G not is the acceleration due to gravity at a height equal to twice the radius of the Earth then the acceleration due to gravity on the surface will be how much Okay g is the acceleration due to gravity at some height it will be g into r² the whole thing divided by r + H whole s this is the formula for height H this is on the surface R is the radius H is the height so the question is what is g let's find it out so g into r² and here you have the height as twice the radius so into 2 R so sorry plus 2 R whole Square R square will get cancelled from everywhere so I'll be left with 1 + 2 the whole squ solving it further G will be G is there over here 1 + 2 is 3 3 square is basically 9 so G will be G multiplied by 9 my God everything looks like G or 9 over here so should it be uh g into 9 yes option C C for there is only one name c for captain slers no it is not B it is not B yep it is not B got it my dear Warriors Perfecto Perfecto moving on to the next question on your screen here it is let a be the area swept out by the line joining the Earth and the Sun okay remember kar's law you join the Sun and the Earth when the earth is revolving and see how much area is swept by that line after some time during February 2000 then area swept by the same line by uh you know during the first week of that month so what is so special about February 2000 guys is it having how many days like is it like a leap year or something maybe there is some speciality why they have told about February 2000 okay so this particular month had 29 days 29 days the first week of that month will have basically only 7 days and by Kepler's Law according to Kepler's Law according to the Kepler's Law the area swept per unit time is going to be the same area swept per unit time is going to be the same so if the area swept in the February month is a so a / 29 is the unknown area which I'll call it a prime divided by 7 days so what will be a prime it will be 7 a / 29 7 a divid 29 is option b that is the correct answer very good Kali very good banki thank you very nice very nice siddu awesome a great akit very good ADC office VI awesome moving on to the next question on your screen escape velocity of the two planets are in the ratio 1 is to 2 ratio of the densities is 2 is to 1 the ratio of the radius of the planets is how much let's try to think what is the formula for escape velocity it is root of 2 * G * m * / R the problem is there is no density in the formula and mass ratio is not even given so I will write mass as density multiplied by volume so it is density multiplied by volume volume because it is a sphere it will be 4X 3 < R Cub r r will get cancelled R squ will remain so I will be left with check this out 4 2 are 8 Pi is there as it is G is there as it is and then you also have three then from here you have row and basically R squ but R square under the root you can bring it outside so it will just become R I can bring it outside the root so it will just become R remember r r Cube will make it R square R squ root is just R so that is what I am getting this means that the escape Velocity is directly proportional to radius and also proportional to the root of the density so vs2 by V1 will be nothing but row2 by Row 1 and this will be R2 by R1 all right so the ratio of the velocity of the two planets we had to do V1 by V2 not vs2 by V1 sorry so V1 by vs2 will be Row 1 by row2 under the root and this will be R1 by R2 so what is Row 1 by row2 what is Row 1 by row2 the ratio of the densities it is 2 is to 1 what is the ratio of the radius what is the ratio of the radius it is clearly mentioned the ratio of the radius has to be found so R1 by R2 has to be found the velocity ratio check this out V1 by vs2 it is given as 1 is to 2 so therefore when I find out R1 by R2 I find out R1 by R2 what will happen this < tk2 will come below so I'll be left with 1X 2 < tk2 1X 2 < tk2 is there as option number c 1 by 2un is there as option number c correct no it is not B be careful yes C for Captain siia 37 very good Perfecto amazing o kudos to all of you and I hope you guys are smashing the like button if you want more sessions for Emet and the college list and other things for Emet this year un unfortunately or whatever I was not able to take many classes because there are a lot of personal things which are going on in my life so that's the reason why I was and plus I'm on the neat Channel too and plus we have to take care of other exams but trust me on this whatever we can do I'm doing if I had to sleep for 2 hours also I'm doing that for the last one month I'm barely sleeping for 3 to 4 hours every day every day and probably you will not see that on my face so please support the channel make sure that every student from Andra and Telangana knows about this channel because we are also going to prepare you for bit set and also going to prepare for J ADV once right and whatever things you will need even for your Juniors right the whole yearlong courses everything and I hope you also know you can also recommend this to your Juniors we are starting the goat batch greatest of alltime batch for your Juniors right or people who want to take a drop both of them so there is a prop one year batch for entire 11th and 12th standard which will also cover J which will also cover any other entrance exam exactly it's a one year course I am going to be teaching you over there and if you not yet a part of it make sure you become a part of it by joining through this link which is there in the description box all right it's uh probably there over here yes V Prime goat batch for J 2025 let your Juniors know yes you are teachers are there and it is is just for 3,999 rupees 3,999 after the batch starts this price will go up to $4,999 so I want you to help me out in this by recommending this particular batch as a guru daksh right for you know your Juniors thank you so much guys okay let's move on to the next question coming up on your screen if the Earth shrinks such that the density becomes eight times to the present value then the new duration of of the day during the hours will be how much come on think about it if the Earth string such that the density will become eight times to the present value then the new duration this is a combination of two chapters rotation and gravity slightly I'll tell you how see if the density will become eight times what is the formula for density density is mass by volume volume is 4x3 < R Cub so if my density has to become 8 times to the present value so when this happens when density will become 8 times when density will become eight times that means the radius has to change mass is the same you are shrinking it so therefore R Cub has to become 1 by 8 times do you understand why 1 by 8 because the 8 will go in the numerator eight will go in the numerator so it will become eight times on the LHS and the r rhs so the denominator will become 8 times less so if R CU has to become 1X 8 therefore how many times will R become R will become half times why because cube of 2 is 8 so 1 by 2 cube is 1 by 8 so the radius has become half is this logic clear my dear Warriors is this particular logic clear my dear Warriors okay so the density becomes eight times so the denominator becomes eight times less what is the denominator having R Cub so if R CU is 1x8 R will be 1x2 naturally okay that's not the end of the story now why will the duration of the day change because angular momentum should be a constant and angular momentum is moment of inertia into basically Omega this should be a constant and what is the moment of inertia 2x 5 times of Mr r² what is Omega 2 piun by T so that is basically a con so therefore I will see r² by T is going to be a constant if that is the case let's find it out initial radius was R time is 24 hours final radius is R by 2 square I do not know the time so what will happen R square R square will cancel R square R square will cancel 2 square is 4 so I will get 1X 24 is 1x 40 4 and 24 cancels and this will basically becomes six so basically time will become 6 hours 6 hours is there as option number D yes D is the correct answer it had angular momentum conservation also in this what a brilliant question no it is not C it is option D many of you got it wrong that's why you are attending this class so that you do not make such mistakes in the actual exam so conservation of angular momentum and the concept of density of any Planet which is mass by the volume that is all that was used gravitational field in a region is given by this if the particle is moved from the origin to this then the change in the gravitational potential energy is how much that is the question okay so let's see how do we solve this first of all understand that our coordinates are 12a 5 so this is 5 this is 12 M this is 5 m the electric field sorry gravitational field is 5 I 12 J cap 5 uh Newton per kg over here and in the y direction it is basically 12 Newton per kg so because of this field there will be a force in the X Direction and the y direction what will be the force let's find it out so the force Remember the force the force is always the field multiplied by the mass so force is going to be the field which is five into the mass which is 2 so 5 into 2 is basically 10 Newton in this direction in this direction the force will be field which is 12 into the mass which is 2 so it will be 24 Newton so the uh you know the change in the gravitational potential energy let's find out the work done by the force the work done by gravity remember work is force into displacement so it will be 10 * 12 plus 10 Newton * 12 m is the displacement sorry work done in the X Direction in the y direction it will be 24 multiplied by basically 5 is that right everyone everybody so this is 120 this is 120 so this is just going to be correct right 24 yeah uh 240 120 yeah 120 120 that is going to be 240 that is B basically going to be 240 Jew correct but is that the change in the gravitational potential energy no the change in the gravitational potential energy is always the negative of the work done by the gravity that is the standard formula so the answer should be - 240 Jew so yes option C is correct option C is correct a lot of people are going to write it as plus 240 which is wrong no it is not option D cool so remember always the change in the energy potential energy is the negative of the work done by that particular Force if this is gravity this will be gravity this is electrostatic electrostatic magnetic magnetic spring spring elastic elastic okay keep this in mind is a standard formula charge is placed at the center of a line joining two charges the system of the three charges will be in equilibrium if that small charge Q is how much let's find it out so you have two equal charges let's say I call it capital Q and capital Q and you're placing this small q over here you want the entire system to be in equilibrium so what might be happening is these two Capital Q's might be repelling each other because of the electrostatic force between them which is then going to be k q q sorry QQ divided by the total distance let's say it is uh a so a squ that is the force of repulsion between these two so k q q / a s but I want the system to be in equilibrium so this small q should Attract it by some Force so hence it will be negative charge hence it will be negative charge something like this only if this is negative charge can it attract each other yep something like this okay so what will this force be it will be k q q / a by 2 whole s if this has to be in equilibrium this is very important word if this has to be in equilibrium these two forces must must be equal these two forces must be equal now what and all will happen K will get cancelled K will get canceled from here here q q will get cancelled in fact this a and this a square will also get cancelled what am I left with this is small q / 1X 2 s is equal to capital Q / 1 so 2 sare is 4 so it will become 4 q is equal to capital Q or Q is equal to Q / 4 but this is only the magnitude the sign will be always opposite so it will be minus Q by4 I just told you swise it will be opposite whatever I found out over here remember this was just the magnitude of the charge was just the magnitude of the charge it has to be negative a lot of people make that mistake and mark the answer as B be careful it is not be it has to be negative because there is an attractive Force how can both of them be of the same sign it has to be of the opposite sign okay moving on to the next question the flux through the surface field is given is how many units well the electric flux is nothing but the field the field dot the area Vector so what is the field it is nothing but 2 I + 4 JC + 7 K cap and what is the area area Vector is basically 10 jcap okay 4 2 4 into 10 is basically 40 reason is jcap will only multiply by jcap I will not go with j k will not go with J that's it so the answer is 40 units where is 40 units option number two yes that is the correct answer is that right option b how many of you get it sir why a by2 okay I'll explain you why a by2 in the previous one see this Force which is going to be there is going to be between only these two charges remember this distance was a this distance was a this Q is present at the midpoint charge is present at the center that is why this particular distance will be ax2 this particular distance will be a by2 understood between small q and capital Q the distance will be a by2 is it absolutely clear okay shall we go ahead this is also done there is a uniform field along the xaxis body of 1 G char this much is thrown in the field and with a speed of 10 how much speed will it have after 10 seconds I feel this has got to do with kinematic equations only because if you have a charge which has some Mass it already has some velocity of 10 m/s it's definitely going to accelerate maybe uh electric field and body of mass and charge yes is projected into the field so after some time it will get a new velocity vity at T is equal to 10 seconds and that velocity can be found using U is V equal U + a initial speed 10 acceleration I don't know time is basically 10 seconds so I need to find out the acceleration how do I find out the acceleration my dear Warriors acceleration is force divided by mass but force is the charge into the field oh so what is the charge 10 ^ minus 6 what is the field yes 10 the^ 3 what is the mass where is the mass 1 G I think yeah so mass is 10 the^ - 3 so - 6 - 3 will become - 3 - 3 and + 3 will become 1 so acceleration is 1 m/ second Square so just put one over here and multiply it so 10 + 10 is nothing but 20 m/s that is the answer let's find out oh why have I put 10 < tk3 uh oh I'm so sorry guys this was along the y axis I'm so sorry so sorry the electric field is along the y- axis not along the x-axis let me just redo this I misread this so this kind of silly mistakes can actually happen in the exam and I can Mark answer a so be very careful this was along the y- axis and the velocity was given along the x-axis so if you just look at the y- axis the initial velocity is zero in the y direction and there is electric field in the y direction so there is acceleration so there will be a y velocity this acceleration is force by mass force is charge into the field divided by the mass charge is 10 ^ - 6 field is 10^ 3 mass is 10 ^ - 3 because it is 1 G so - 6 - 3 - 3 + 3 will become 1 so 1 m/s square in the y direction so VY will be uy + a y into T initial velocity 0 acceleration 1 time time 10 seconds so VY will be 10 m/s but at the same time in the X Direction whatever velocity is there ux that will continue as VX these two will be equal in fact the horizontal velocity will be still 10 m/s because there is no field or acceleration in the X Direction so what will be then the total velocity it will be V y² + V x² under the root so it will be 10 s + 10 Square under the root so it will be basically 10 < tk2 m/s so 10 < tk2 m/s is the correct answer yes perfect how many of you got it awesome awesome awesome mgls definitely J Advan classes to awesome everybody answer chendi in the chat box no time pass going the time pass no no no no no yeah concentrate no know that random chats no definitely not that will not help you in the exam yeah moving on to the next question on your screen two charges are placed at the two corners of an equilateral triangle the potential energy of the system is V how much work is done to bring a similar charge from infinite to the third vertex let's draw an equilateral triangle first okay let me draw two situations first you just had two charges on the two vertices let's say two identical charges are q and Q so what is the potential between them it will be k q sorry potential energy my bad the potential energy of the system is V so V will be k q q divided by let's say the distance between them is a so it will be nothing but k q ² / a that is the potential energy of the system now what you have done is apart from these two charges you bring in additional charge Q over here so from Infinity to the third vertex so what will happen there will be new energy there will be new energy in the system what will be that new energy V prime it will be nothing but K QQ ided a between these two k QQ divided by between these two and between these two so this will come basically three times into 3 but wait a minute K QQ by a is nothing but V so this is going to become 3 * of V this is going to become three times of V so the new energy is three times the older energy but do not Mark option C because the question says clearly the work done so the work done will be the final energy minus the initial energy so 3v minus V which will make it 2v hence the answer should be option yes that is the correct answer lot of students might end up marking 3v which is incorrect which is incorrect got it so these kind of tricky things might happen in the exam okay and I hope you are smashing the like button for this session because we are giving immense support to all the kind of examinations who are preparing for any engineering entrance exam so we want to make sure you guys get the best of the best engineering and science colleges you know in the country and we are trying our best so make sure you are supporting this channel the vantu J English Channel which started for all the South Indian students it is for you it is the channel for any South Indian students remember that okay moving on to the next question the intensity of the magnetic field at the center is B1 and the point on the axis at a distance equal to the radius is B2 then what is the ratio IO of the magnetic field okay let's try to figure this out imagine you take a coil which has some current in it and what you do you take two points the first point is over here the first point is over here the magnetic field at that particular point at the center the magnetic field at the center will be given by mu current ided 2 R that is the formula now let's say you go to a distance equal to R which is equal to the distance equal to the radius on the axis then what is the magnetic field at that point it is Mu I / 2 here you have r² + x x is also RS only so r² whole ra to 3x2 and on the top you have again r² this is the correct formula so let's try to figure out what does it end up being mu I r² / 2 r² + r s 2 r² okay now r² to 3x2 will make it R Cub that is obvious r s + r s will be 2 r s if you want to do it like this I do it like this 2 ra to 3x2 again r² ra to 3x2 I'm just splitting up the terms so this two and this two will cancel three will be remaining 2 and three will make it mu I ided 2 r to2 r to 3 only one of the r will remain 2 3 by 2 2 Cub is 8 so it will become it will just become the square root of 8 what is that square root of 8 square root of 8 is 4 into 2 square root which is 2 < tk2 so this will become 2 < tk2 so this will become 2 < tk2 into R 2 2 4 so it will become mu I / 4 < tk2 R that's not the question the question is only something else the question is find the ratio of B1 by B2 so let's do that B1 by B2 will be this by this so mu I / 2 R B2 is nothing but mu I / 4 < tk2 R mu I mu i r r will get cancelled 4 and 2 will get also cancelled so I will be left with 2 < tk2 / 1 just check this out so 2 < tk2 / 1 which is option number a option number a correct 2 < tk2 divided 1 option a very good very good yes this is two only yeah this is 2 < tk2 divided 1 awesome so if you know the formulas you will be able to do it if you're wondering sir is there a formula revision for uh you know em set yes I'll tell you where it is just search SE over here [Music] formula physics just search for it just search for it do you see complete formula revision J Mains 2024 so this J Mains will it be useful obviously will the formula change will the formula change in EM set bit set no right so this is the session it's almost reaching one lakh views so just check this out and you will be revising all the formulas which are there for your physics okay so use this session there is also PDF link which is attached below this session okay everything is there in this cool moving on to the next one coming up on your screen the straight conductor is bent as shown the radius of the circular Arc is r m the magnetic field at the center of the semicircle is how much that is the question that is the question okay so namash I feel that if you just try to do this calcul ation on your own right it will be very easy the formula that I used here is Mu I radius squ ID 2 * radius square plus distance Square the distance happens to be x uh sorry R because it is mentioned in the problem after that it is pure mathematics physics ended here only after this is pure simple E standard maths r + r is 2 so 2 r² raed to 3x2 so 2 and R squ I have operated out solve them individually and then Tak on the ratio B1 by B2 that's all I have done so do it cooly okay separately on your own you'll be able to get it okay okay mahalakshmi miss me where all right come on what is the answer for this what is the answer for this come on think about it first of all remember this simple trick whenever you have a wire carrying some current and you you are on the axis of the wire the contribution of the magnetic field is always zero so this part of the wire over here and this part of the wire over here you are lying on the axis so there is no contribution only from these two wires so completely forget them completely forget them is that okay number two the magnetic induction of the semicircle only the contribution will come because of this semicircular wire the contribution is only going to come because of the semicircular wire so so what is the magnetic field due to the semicircle over there it will be mu I / 2 R that's for a complete circle because it's a semicircle the contribution will be exactly half of it so hence it will be mu I 2 2 are 4 4 * of r that is the answer where is it mu I divided 4 * of R if you're wondering sir Pi Pi is there Pi Pi is anyways going to get canceled no so so why are you worried about it anyways this pi and this Pi will get cancelled so this is exactly the answer what I wanted why did the chuma write it that is their wish or basically think of it this way usually you write mu not by 4 Pi because mu by 4 Pi is 10 ^ minus 7 so to bring it into the standard form they have written pi divided and multiplied that's all cool okay awesomeness moving on to the next question coming up on your screen a proton and alpha particle enters the magnetic field with the same speed the period of rotation of alpha particle will be how many times alpha particle means it has + 2E charge and four times the mass proton has plus e charge and mass has M so the period of rotation if their velocities are same time period of rotation once they enter a magnetic field remember when you throw a charge in a magnetic field they go in circular paths the radius is MV by QB and time period is 2 pi m / QB this is the formula okay so T Alpha by T proton will be mass of alpha by mass of proton and it is inversely proportional to the charge so charge of alpha will be below and charge of proton will be on the top magnetic field is the same velocity didn't even come into the picture alpha particle is four times heavier than proton and alpha particle has twice the charge of a proton so 4 by 2 will make it 2 is to 1 so the time period of alpha by time period of proton is 2 is 1 so therefore the time period of alpha will be 2 * the time period of the proton so two times is option b yes B is the correct answer very good Amia Tanish Awesome YouTube fun very good akulu very good very good Yasmin awesomeness proud of all of you are I feel that you guys are going to rock it yes or no I feel you guys are going to rock the EM EP examination yes or no put up some fire Emoji in the chat box quickly and all the students who are joining a new quickly subscribe to the vant J English Channel right away right now don't miss this chance this is your OneStop channel for all the students in South India especially who want to learn in English there's only one J English Channel in the entire country nobody cares about you only we do in vantu we have Tamil Channel we have telu Channel we have Canada Channel we have English Channel right we do literally care about you understand that so you need to show that love and support So moving on to the next question the ratio of the magnetic field at the center of a current carrying circular coil to its magnetic move m is X the current and the radius both are doubled then the new ratio will become how much the new ratio will become how much okay let's try to do this the ratio of the magnetic field at the center the magnetic field formula is Mu I ided 2 r divided by the Magnetic Moment okay Magnetic Moment is number of turns which is 1 into current which is I into area which is basically < r² now you divide both of them you divide both of them so what will you get you will basically get okay I and I will get cancelled so I will be left with mu not uh 2 will be there here uh from here remember I and I has got cancelled so Pi is there below right and this R and R square will merge together R and R square will merge together and it will be basically R it will just become R CU is that right everybody is that right everybody so it is independent this ratio B by m is independent of the current it is just inversely proportional to R Cube so think about it if the radius is doubled oh my God what will happen if the radius is doubled so you double the radius so it will become 2 Cub so basically it will just become 1 by 8 times 1X 8 * so guys the answer should be option D I believe yes it is D this ratio because you double the radius 2 cube is 8 8 is in the denominator so it will become 1 by 8 times awesomeness awesomeness very good very good moving on to the next question on your screen look at it it says three capacitors are connected in series and 11 volts is applied to the combination the charge and the voltage on the first capacitor is how much okay let's try to do this because they are connected in series the charge on the entire combination will be the same everybody agrees with this capacitors in series charges are same so let's find out the equivalent capacitance first so 1 by C in series will be remember for series capacitors use parallel resistors formula so 1X 3 + 1X 6 + 1X 9 don't add them they are not resistors capacitors have opposite formula that's why use the parallel resistance formula so guys the uh you know the LCM we can just take it as U you know uh 18 I believe yes 18 we can take it so three goes with 18 6 times 6 goes with 18 3 times 9 goes with 18 2 times 6 + 3 is 9 9 + 2 is 11 so 11 by 18 so the equivalent capacitance is 18x 11 vol that is the equivalent capacitance so what is the charge the charge will be C into v c into V what is capacitance 18 by 11 and what is the voltage 11 itself so this will be 18 kums or what is it it is microfarad right so this will be also in micro so this is micrum so 18 microc is there here and here so option b gets eliminated option D also gets eliminated now out of six and two we have to choose one of them so the charge is done the potential difference is how much the potential difference is how much now we all know Q is equal to C into V so the charge is remember the same on all of them is same for all in series in series so the charge I can still put it as 18 micro capacitor uh is 3 micro so put 3 micro into the voltage into the voltage V1 so V1 will be 18 / 3 so V1 will be nothing but 6 volts V1 will be nothing but 6 volts so hence the answer should be C option which is right over here 6 volts is right over here so this gets eliminated got it C for Captain stas very nice awesome moving on to the next question the voltage difference across a capacitor increases by 30% the energy of the capacitor increases by how much percent that is the question wow what a question so is there a formula for energy and voltage on the capacitor yes what is the formula energy is half C v² is that right half C v² the voltage is increased by 30% what does that statement mean the new voltage is the old voltage plus 30% of the old voltage 30% of the old voltage means 3 V 1 +3 is 1.3 V okay so what is the new energy it will be half c new voltage Square so it will be half c new voltage is 1 1.3 V whole Square so it will become 1 by 2 C v² what is 13 Square 169 so this will be 1.69 but half CV square is the old energy so the new energy is 1.69 times the old energy so if you see it is 1.69 times more so if it has 100 it is 169 so it is 69% more hence the answer should be again who is this what is written over here Captain Shas yes C for Captain Shas correct that is the correct answer my dear Warriors next question electrons are going away from a region of low energy to a high energy move from a low energy to a high energy potential wise since an electron has a negative charge what do you think I feel everybody should be able to answer this question everybody should be able to answer this question everybody come on I'm waiting to see the spam come on everybody I'm teacher only is telling you spam the answer spam the answer come on very good come on come on come on come on I want to see everybody spamming it positive charge always goes from high voltage to low voltage positive negative goes from low to high because it is a negative charge exactly that is the correct reason both of them are correct a is the correct answer a is the correct answer a for ALU Arjun what is a for c for Captain stus C for Captain stus correct very good what is a a for ALU Arjun sir awesome what a nice answer proud of all of you moving on to the next question the equivalent capacitance between A and B is the equivalent capacitance between A and B is come on solve this particular question I think you can see few of them are in series series are in parallel like especially these two are in series and whenever capacitances are same in series the equivalent will become the capacitance divided by the number here there are two such capacitors so 8 ided 2 which is 4 micro farat okay so it will get divided because series you will use 1 by R1 sorry 1X C1 + 1X C2 + 1X C3 that is the formula that you will use awesome a for Andra birani oh that is also nice thank you vantu J English I think it is it is one of our teachers only in the chat box a forani oh ALU Arjun fans are also assembled VES thank you okay so what about four micro and 8 micro in parallel what about four micro and 8 micro in parallel so in parallel what happens you add them so 4 + 8 will make it 12 microfarad yes or no it will become 12 microfarad now 8 12 and this 8 are in series exactly so 8 microfarad is in series with your 12 microfarad which is in series with again your 8 microfarad all of them are in series so which formula will you use so 1 by C is equal to 1 by C1 + 1 by C2 + 1 by C3 three understood my dear students understood my dear students perfect so what is the answer that you get after solving all of this take the LCM take the LCM what is the LCM yes LCM is 24 perfect 8 3 is are 24 12 2's are 24 8 3's are 24 right 3 + 2 5 5 + 3 8 so it will become 8 by 24 which is basically 1X 3 but that is 1 by CS so CS will be three so is there three oh wow three for oh sorry C for Captain STS wow yes yes right but little bit not too much I can understand but yeah I have my roots from Andra Kul Hyderabad gadwal right so I think you might be knowing these towns and cities or might have heard about them cool so moving on to the next one coming up on your screen capacitance of a capacitor becomes 7x 6 times the original value of a dialectric slab of thickness 2x 3D is introduced between the plates T is the separation between the plates the dialectric constant of the dialectric slab is asked okay so let's try to solve this guys how to solve this the capacitance becomes 7x 6 * the original value with the insertion of the slab so C with the slab is 7 by C 6 * the C without anything now with the slab the formula goes something like this Epsilon a divided by each part length divided by the dialectric medium constant slab is having a length of 2x 3D so put 2 by 3D and divide it with the dialectric constant part out of D if 2x 3D goes the remaining part will be D by3 the dialectric constant will be one because there is air in that part so that's why divide it with one that's the formula Epsilon a divided by D1 by K1 + D2 by K2 + D3 by K3 + D4 by K4 2 D by3 is the slab remaining is d by3 That's all this is equal to 7x 6 * Epsilon a / d a lot of things are going to get cancelled like for example right over here Epsilon Epsilon a a d d d everywhere it gets cancelled right so now you just have to solve this normally and you will get the value of K that's all okay you just have to solve this normally and you'll get the value of K so this will be 1 iD uh 2x 3 k + 1X 3 1X 3 is equal to 7x 6 * of D you cross multiply them cross multiply them guys so this will become 6 D is equal to 7 * of 7 times of uh sorry D also has got canceled why did I put D over here yeah so just cross multiply so 6 will be equal to 7 * of 2x 3 k + 2x 3 k + 1 by 3 in fact 3 can be taken outside as common and you multiply it with 6 so it will become 18 = 7 into 2 by k + 1 solve this and you will get the answer just check it out if you get it as 14 by 11 so solving this you should get the value of K as 14 by 11 option number a option number a cool awesomeness so this is the main formula this is the main formula which you should use moving on to the next question two capacitors C1 C2 charged with 120 volts and 200 vol batteries when they are connected in parallel it is found the potential on each one of them is zero the potential on each one of them is zero okay interesting so if they are connected in parallel it is found the potential becomes zero then what is the relationship between these capacitors think about it so first of all this capacitor C1 is charged with 120 volt the other capacitor that you have C2 is is charged to 200 volts now you join both of them together C1 and C2 in parall and what happens is the potential on each one of them becomes zero that means if the voltage is zero the charge will be also zero the charges have neutralized each other so whatever positive charge was there same negative charge was there they cancelled out each other exactly so the charges on each one of them are zero meaning for example this was the positive terminal and let's say this was the the other side was the negative terminal so the positive was connected to negative negative was connected to the positive so when they were connected since the charges were equal they just got cancelled out with each other that's all so since we all know Q is equal to C into V the value of Q is basically going to be the same value of Q is going to be the same therefore for the first capacitor the charge will be C1 multiplied 120 for the other capacitor the charge will be C2 * by 200 C2 multiplied by 200 0 0 you cancel so guys what is the factor which you going divide four right so 12 divid by 4 is 3 so 3 * of C1 20 ID 4 is 5 so 5 * of C2 3 C1 is basically 5 C2 3c1 is 5 C2 is option number c for Captain stus understood is it absolutely clear my dear Warriors everybody with me very good very good excellent moving on to the next one the drift speed is V when a current I is Flowing radius and current are doubled then the new velocity will be how much that's the question okay what is the formula for drift speed current is equal to Nvidia you might have heard about the software company graphics card company NVIDIA right GeForce Nvidia Intel all these are electronic software companies you might have heard of correct so over here what is happening radius and current are doubled so what will happen to the drift speed so drift speed is current divided by NE e area area is basically p piun r squ so drifts speed uh 1 by drift Speed 2 because it is directly proportional to current so current 1 by current 2 inversely proportional to the radius so R2 on the top R1 below but it is whole squared the current and the radius are doubled so second current is 2 * the old current the new radius is 2 * the old Radius 2 square and 2 will make it just 2 is 1 but that is just V1 by V2 2 but I want V2 so V2 will be V1 by 2 V1 is V so vx2 so vx2 is option b yes that is the correct answer awesome awesome awesome awesome gondel tanus oh what is my salary sir okay gondel complete your engineering from a good college only then you can enter into teaching okay from a good College okay like I have done my bch from nit nagpur I have done my research from it Bombay so most of the teachers in vantu are I NN bitn right so do that and when you apply then I will tell you the salary Because by the time you apply here the salary would have increased no okay so then I will tell you so you apply very soon hope to see you as a teacher moving on a V ston bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance by adjusting the variable resistance why I shown in the figure for the most precise measurement of X the resistance of p and Q okay what do you think it is what do you think it is do not play any role should be approximately 2x should be approximately equal and small should be large and unequal the resistance of p and Q guys whenever meter rge experiment is performed these resistances should be roughly the same meaning your null point should come close to 50 cm only then your accuracies are very good if your null point is very close to this end or the other far end then the inaccuracies are more so in order that the null point is somewhere in between this resistance and this resistance are roughly the same this resistance and this resistance are roughly the same so the null happens to be at the midpoint so it should be approximately the same and yes they are small you do not make it very big correct wow very good awesome awesome awesome okay why are you writing colorful because you like colorful things if I write it in plain things then you will not find it attractive that's why the gometer does not show any deflection the value of the resistance is how much see if the gometer is not showing any deflection that means the current in this part is zero if there is no current in this part that's it the voltage difference between these two points is basically 2 volts okay that is the basic conclusion which I can draw you have to find the resistance okay now if on the resistance or across the resistance the voltage drop is 2 volts but 10 volts is given so naturally the remaining volts which is 8 volts will be dropped here because this will be 10 - 2 volts this will be nothing but 10 - 2 Vol which is 8 Vol so if that is the case I can also find the current in this part I can also find the current in this part the current will be voltage divided by resistance also I can do the the same thing because no current goes here all that current will have to travel here all that current will have to travel here it will be voltage which is 2 divided by the resistance both of them are same so therefore 2 by R will be equal to 8X 400 this will go four * 4 goes with this so R will be basically 100 ohm let's find out whether it is 100 yes it is D option it is D option no it is not B yes alpha2 the answer is D correct correct very good very good very good moving on to the next one on your screen last few questions coming up full Jo full energy I want everybody to smash the like button and subscribe and what is your Guru Daka you have to talk about us the channel make sure they are subscribed and also let them know that you know Shri s and his team they are teaching you in the go batch which is the greatest of all time batch the link is there in the description box even if you are planning to take a drop this is the batch for you with entire 11th and 12th standard syllabus remember that and yes you will get test series you will get study material you will have live classes their recordings my notes all the teachers notes ebooks so you don't have to buy any books and yes you will get doubt solving assignments and complete study material with Revis Vision everything in this batch till next year J 2025 Advanced so all the exams before that also get covered yes and the course is just for 3,999 rupees you have to do this if you are taking a drop and if you know someone who's planning to take a drop or currently moving from 11th to 12th yes why should we aim for low we should aim for high if you prepare for J if you prepare for Advance you are automatically preparing for every single exam be EMZ be it KCT be it ComEd K be it VI Tri every single thing remember that so a resistance is stretched till the length is doubled the wire is now bent in the form of a triangle the new resistance between the any two sides in ohms is how much okay let's see how do we solve this how do we solve this fair enough so guys three resistance is stretched till the length is double remember resistance is row L by a but do not say it proportional to length because area will change and area is volume divided by length so it will be row L S by V so resistance is directly proportional to L Square meaning if my length is doubled 2 square is four so resistance will become four times so the new resistance will become old resistance which is 3 ohms multiplied 4 which is 12 ohms now you make it into an equilateral triangle let's make it into an equilateral triangle so what will happen this 12 ohms will get divided into three parts this will be 4 Ohms this will be 4 Ohms this will be 4 Ohms and now what you do you measure the effective resistance between the ends let's say between this end and this end what will be the effective resistance that's the question question right okay now these two 4 Ohms are basically in series they are basically in series so 4 + 4 resistors will just add it will become 8 ohms that 8 ohms is parallel with 4 Ohms so uh your parallel resistance will become R1 R2 / R1 + R2 8 4 are 32 8 + 4 is basically 12 right div divided by four right divided by four so this will be nothing but just8 over here and this will be nothing but by three so it should be 8 by3 yes option C is the correct answer option C awesome awesome okay so for the deleted chapters which are not there in J but which are there in Emet watch my old classes you can see 2 3 years back classes uh I have completed uh trans transistors and communication systems whatever things were not there in J Mains and if it is there in emat or any other exam watch my very old classes that is properly done okay you can watch it it's all there in English it's all there recorded okay a current of 2 ampers Flows In This circuit as shown the potential difference between these two points is how much is the question first things first this current will get divided as it goes in the circuit how will it get divided let's find out 7 and 3 is 10 ohms 3 and 7 is also 10 ohms oh so 10 ohm here and 10 ohm here so the current will get divided equally so this will be 1 amp and this two will be 1 amp but obviously the voltages won't be same do not put Zer 0 is not even there in the answer so first of all let's talk about voltage at point R it will be this Point's voltage which which is point p is voltage minus why minus because in the resistor the voltage will drop by I I is 1 resistance is 3 okay great what about the voltage at Point S vs will be the voltage at Point P minus iir I is 1 resistance is 7 but what do we want we want the voltage difference between R and S so VR minus vs VP VP will cancel so I will have minus 1 into 3 - 1 into 7 and I'm subtracting them so this will become 7 - 3 which is basically 4 volts is it there yep option number B it could have been also possible the answer comes out to be negative so that negative is also there to just confuse you it's just there to confuse you got it my dear Warriors clear o Perfecto amazing O Let's Move on to the next question the amplitudes of the waves are 2 is 5 the ratio of Maximum to minimum intensity of those interfering waves whenever the waves interfere they can produce constructive destructive or intermediate interference if it is constructive amplitudes add if it is destructive their amplitudes subtract and if it is something else use vector addition by treating the amplitudes like phasers which behave like vectors yes okay now this is maximum and minimum that means constructive and destructive the intensity formula it's not addition maximum intensity the maximum intensity uh is going to be okay I will not even use that formula I just need amplitudes let's do this the maximum amplitude will be A1 + A2 so imagine imagine one of the amplitud udes is 2 a the other amplitude will be 5 a ratio is 2 is 5 so it will be basically 2 a + 5 a which is basically 7 similarly think what about the minimum amplitude which will be there it will be the modulus of A1 - A2 so it will be modulus of 2 a - 5 a so 5 - 2 is 3 so the answer will be 3 a that is the minimum amplitude now what about the intensity intensity is proportional to the square of the amplitude so therefore IM Max by I minimum will be a Max by a minimum whole Square what is maximum It's s what is minimum that is three this whole Square 7 Square 49 3 Square 9 49 is 9 is option b that is the correct answer got it yes like I said amplitudes add and subtract for constructive and destructive Maxima and Minima bright and dark fringes exactly light waves Fringe width of Young's dble slit experiment is measured to be beta what will be the Fringe width if the wavelength is doubled separation is halfed and between the screen and the slits is tripled every single variation has been done so beta is Lambda d by small D correct what is beta Prime what is happening to the new wavelength the wavelength is doubled so 2 * of Lambda the distance between the screen and the slits is tripled so three times of capital D the distance between the slits is halfed that means small d by 2 you should know what is the difference between capital D and small D capital D is the distance between the screen and the slits between those two slits the distance is small D it's very small so small D so this will become 2 3 are 6 6 2 are 12 12 * Lambda d by small D so it will be 12 * what is this this is basically your old Fringe width so 12 * is D exactly how many of you wrote it wow let me see the names very good deaj very good Alpha very good mad awesome abijit very good very good excellent de moving on to the next question on your screen if the distance between the object and its two times magnified virtual image produced by a cur mirror is 15 what is the focal length Ray Optics question let's see if you guys can figure this out the magnification produced is two times for that virtual image okay so what is the focal length of the mirror so imagine this is the mirror example this is where the object is the distance between the object and it's two times virtual image uh so virtual means the image will be here this is object this is image okay the image is 2 * magnified something like this yeah and it is clearly mentioned this is 15 cm just check this out yep so we all know V divided U with a negative sign with a negative sign gives me the magnification and this magnification is basically two times that is what is given to me that is basically what is given to me yes or no perfect so from this from this let's see if we can figure out something the distance between the object and it two times is this much magnified okay so there therefore V magnitude wise is 2 * the magnitude of the image distance magnitude wise V is basically two times of this awesome awesome now think about it we have to use the mirror formula we have to use basically the mirror formula so for using the mirror formula I'll do one thing let's say this is X let's say this is X so the object distance if it is X X the image distance is twice the object distance so this will be 2 * of X this will be 2 * of X agree with this if this is X this will be 2 * of X because this is 2 multiplied X awesome so let's use the mirror formula and see what do we get so 1 by V - 1 by U is equal to 1 by F right 1X V plus sorry plus 1 by U is equal to 1x f now image distance is basically 2X and it is positive because this is the positive side and this is the negative side the object distance is going to be negative so it will be Min - x is equal to 1 by F awesome awesome so let's see what happens over here half - 1 half - 1 is - half so this will be - 2x 1X 2X and this is basically F so F will be F will be nothing but - 2x oh what is the value of x guys the total length was 15 so 15 was x + 2x which is 3x therefore X will be 15 by 3 which is 5 cm which is 5 cm so this will be - 2 into 5 which is basically -1 cm is that option there yes it is there yes it is there as option A many of you said option C many of you said it as option C that is wrong that is wrong got it my dear Warriors very good awesomeness moving on to the next question on your screen next question on your screen the wavelength of light in vacuum is 6,000 amstrong and in the medium is 4,000 amstrong what is the refractive index of the medium how has refractive index got to do anything with the wavelength remember the refractive index is speed of light in air upon speed of light in the medium speed of light is frequency into wavelength this is also frequency into wavelength frequency never changes so that's why it is wavelength in air upon wavelength in the medium so wavelength in air is uh basically or vacuum is 6,000 wavelength inside the medium is 4 ,000 0 0's cancel it will become 6X 4 which is 3x2 which is 1.5 is that so yes it is correct answer B option very good excellent day enjoyed this class and if you want me to conduct one more class for the entire 11th standard topics do let me know in the comments and also support by liking and subscribing to the vantu J English Channel I would love to see your support only then we will do it thank you so much okay do leave me a comment after the video ends thank you so much take care bye-bye this was Captain sh signing off asista

Channel: Vedantu JEE English

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Keywords: vedantu, vedantujeeenglish, jee2024, 2024, pyqs, vedantujee, jeemotivation, JEE2025, JEE Mains, jee advanced, bitsat, nta, pcm, eamcet, eamcet 2024, eamcet cheat codes in telugu 2024, vedantu telugu jee 2024, eapcet 2024, eamcet physics, physics, eapcet 2024 physics, physics eamcet weightage 2024, eamcet 2024 physics exam weightage, jee 2024, chapter wise weightage for physics eamcet 2024, eamcet 2024 physics exam weightage chapter wise, physics high weightage chapters for eamcet 2024

Id: FLsz4yCWawU

Length: 90min 9sec (5409 seconds)

Published: Wed May 08 2024