The Pigeon Hole Principle: 7 gorgeous proofs

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Welcome to another Mathologer video. See that book  over there? It's called Récréation mathématique   and it's a 17th-century version of mathologer. Yep  once upon a time long ago people would read books   for their recreational mathematics. Published  in 1626 Récréation mathématique is a collection   of fun maths problems devised by some jesuit  priests while organising their annual open days.   Who would have thought they had open days way back  then. Anyway just like some famous and infamous   maths videos recreational mathematics went viral.  More than 70 editions and translations appeared   over the next century. It's a cool book but I have  a special reason for introducing it to you today.   Towards the end of Récréation mathématique we  find the first-ever recorded instance of the   mega-famous pigeonhole principle. A very simple  and yet incredibly powerful proof technique.   What I want to do today is to explain to you  the pigeonhole principle and to present my top   seven favourite applications of pigeon-based  mathematics. I'll start with a very famous and   very hairy example from that dusty book over  there. Then we'll have a problem with pigeons   on a sphere, a pigeon-powered explanation of  recurring decimals, some party maths, a very   twisty property of the Rubik's cube, a puzzler  from the 1972 international mathematical olympiad,   and finally what some people consider to be  the best mathematical card trick of all time.   Lots of fun aha moments ahead, promise.   Okay so to start the hairy ball rolling   let me ask you a question: are there any  hair doppelgängers in Australia? Strange.   In other words are there two Australians who  have exactly the same number of body hairs? Okay,   that's an easy one since two people with no hair  at all will have the exact same zero hairs. And it   turns out that there are quite a few such people.  Since alopecia universalis a medical condition   that results in the loss of all body hair  affects about one in four thousand people. Okay   so let's change the question and just  consider people who have some body hair.   So are there two hairy Australians with  the exact same number of body hairs?   What do you think? How could you possibly  find the answer to this question?   Well, ask everybody in Australia to stand still  while one by one we count all their hairs?   Australians tend to be a sporty lot and  standing still is not their forte. So maybe not.   Well, it's actually very easy to decide  this question in a very sneaky way.   First of all, let's figure out roughly  how many hairs we're talking about.   The average number of hair follicles on  a human body is about 5 million. So it's   probably safe to say that the absolute hairiest  Australian has no more than 6 million hairs.   Next evacuate six million Australian houses  and label them one two three up to six million.   There, that's house number six million at the  bottom. Now imagine moving all the Australians,   all 24 million of them, into these six  million houses. Each Australian counts   the number of hair on their body and moves into  the house with the corresponding number. Got it?   24 million Australians crammed into six million  houses. Obviously that means at least one house,   probably tons of them will end up with more  than one occupant, right? But what does it   mean for two people to be in such a house? Yep,  it means those people have the same number of   hairs as the number of that house and so  the same number of hairs as each other.   We just proved that at any moment in time there  are hair doppelgängers in Australia. Amazing   argument isn't it? Really no work at all. And  as well as amazing the argument is really weird.   Think about it, although we can be absolutely  certain that Australia has hair doppelgängers   the argument gives us absolutely no clue about  how to find such hairy twins. Very strange.   There's also another thing the argument fails to  tell us. Take any hairy individual, say Einstein   there, then the argument doesn't promise us that  Einstein ever had a hair doppelgänger anywhere   in the world. As I said the argument itself is  usually referred to as the pigeonhole principle   and you can probably guess the origin of the name  right? If there are more pigeons than pigeonholes,   then once all the pigeons are housed at least  one of the pigeonholes has to have more than   one pigeon. Pretty obvious. Oh and here's the part  of the 17th-century book that deals with the hair   example. If you know a little French it's very  much worth having a closer look not least to find   out how exactly a 17th-century Mathologer went  about explaining things to a general audience.   I'll link to a digital copy in the description,  as well to as to a nice mathematical intelligencer   article about the history of the  puzzle and the pigeonhole principle.   Now suppose you have lots of pigeons then you'll  be guaranteed that there's a pigeonhole with   plenty of pigeons. To be precise if you have m  pigeons and n pigeonholes then you can be sure   that at least one of the pigeonholes  contains at least m over n pigeons.   Okay also pretty obvious when you think about  it for a second. So for example with 15 pigeons   and six holes, there is at least one hole with 15  divided by 6 pigeons. 15 divided by 6 that's 2.5   okay. And no no pigeons were hurt in the  production of this video we don't deal   with half pigeons. So we round up 2.5 to 3 and we  can be sure that once all the pigeons are housed   at least one pigeonhole will  contain at least three pigeons.   Applied to our hairy Australians we have 24  over 6 that's 4. So we can be sure there is   at least one club of four Australians  with the exact same number of hairs.   So things are even more hairy in  Australia than they appear at first sight.   Okay, let's suppose you have five pigeon  friends scattered around the globe.   Can you find a hemisphere containing three of the  pigeons? Yep that's easy right two hemispheres   north and south and five pigeons so one of the  hemispheres contains at least three pigeons.   True some of those pigeons may be on  the equator but you can also easily   avoid that just find a tilted equator that is  a great circle which misses all five pigeons.   Then one of the tilted hemispheres created  by that equator will contain three pigeons.   But now a tricky one. If you don't mind  including a great circle in a hemisphere   you can always arrange to have four  of the five pigeons in one hemisphere.   Really? That doesn't sound right, does it?  Here's how you do it. Take any two of your   pigeon friends. Then you can definitely find  a tilted equator that contains both pigeons.   That leaves three pigeons and so one of the two  hemispheres will contain two of these pigeons plus   the two on the equator and you have four pigeons  in a hemisphere. Cool hmm. An easy challenge for   you. Say you upgraded to seven pigeon friends  roaming the globe. How many can you guarantee to   be contained in some hemisphere plus its tilted  equator? Leave your answers in the comments.   Of course, we all know what fractions are: three  over four, five over three and things like that   but it gets a little trickier if you  want to express fractions as decimals.   Sure three over four is zero point seven five and  five over three equals one point six six,… those   two are easy right? Well, we had to sneak in those  infinity dots when no one was looking. But what   about 7 over 13? How can we recite that? And is  0.676767… a fraction? Not so obvious. Well as most   of you know the fractions are exactly the numbers  whose decimal representations have infinite   repeating tails. Wait what? All have infinite  repeating tails? What about three over four?   There, no repeating tail? Well the way I look at  it even 0.75 has an infinite repeating tail. An   infinite repeating tail of zeros. Anyway if you  include the infinite tails of zeros then the   fractions are really exactly those numbers whose  decimal expansions have infinite repeating tails.   But do you know why the fractions are exactly  those decimals? I'm guessing quite a few of you   don't so let me demonstrate this fraction decimal  correspondence by fitting a flock of infinitely   many pigeons into finitely many pigeonholes. Ok,  let's pick a fun fraction like the one over there.   Does it look like fun? Maybe not but we'll find  out why this fraction is special when we calculate   its decimal expansion. To do that we divide 355  by 113. We all remember our long division right?   Okay here we go 113 goes into 355 three  times. Three times 113 is 339 and so we   get a remainder of 16. Next, add 0 to make  the 16 into 160. 113 goes into 160 once.   1 times 113 is 113. Okay remainder 47. And  so on. Now we can continue … well forever.   Okay so the process is never-ending and  as part of the process we will generate   infinitely many of the yellow remainders. These  yellow remainders are our infinitely many pigeons.   And what are the pigeonholes? Well, notice  that there are only finitely many values   those yellow remainders can be namely the 113  possible remainders after division by 113.   So what does the pigeonhole principle  now give us? It promises that at some   point of this division process we must come  across one of these remainders a second time.   But as soon as this happens the whole division  process will repeat, we'll have entered into a   loop which produces the same sequence of digits  over and over and that promises 355 over 113 can   be expressed as a repeating decimal. And why is  our fun fraction so much fun. Well, the decimal   looks a little familiar, right? At least at the  beginning. In fact 355 over 113 is a very famous   very good fraction approximation of pi using  relatively small numbers. Its decimal expansion   coincides with that of pi up to this point. And  what about the repeating tail of this fraction?   It turns out the repeating part is as big as can  be namely 112 digits long corresponding to the   112 non-zero remainders of 113. All pretty easy  right? Of course, there was nothing special about   our fraction for this argument. The same argument  shows that every fraction can be written as an   infinite decimal with a repeating tail. The  argument also tells us how long this tail can be.   Ok but what about the other half of this fraction  decimal correspondence. We used pigeons to prove   that every fraction is a repeating decimal  but why is every repeating decimal a fraction?   Be honest, do you know why? Well if you  don't know and you'd like to know you can   get a mountain size hint from my video on why  9.99 and so on is equal to 10. And of course,   look to the comments for a discussion. Oh  and just in case you have not spotted it yet   here is a little extra very memorable fun  feature of the fraction in our example.   Okay here's the famous one. You go to a party  and as usual at a party people shake hands   with all their friends. Okay with COVID we're  having a lot fewer parties and handshakes but   let's imagine the good old times. So people  at our imaginary party are shaking hands.   Some will have lots of friends and do a lot of  shaking and others may have only a friend or two.   But no matter how many guests attend the party and  whatever shaking of hands transpires there will   always be at least two guests who shake hands with  the exact same number of people. Nice huh? And no   pigeons in sight, unless it's a pigeon party :)  okay lame joke but couldn't resist. Let's see   how this works. Suppose there's seven guests at  a party. The exact number doesn't matter. Well,   it should be more than one guest. Okay, now when  two guests shake hands we record this with a line   connecting the two guests. So once all hands have  been shaken we'll end up with a picture like this.   One very unpopular guy down there. Anyway,  see there are also those two guys there.   They each shake hands with five  other people and the question is   how can we be sure that this will always  happen, that there will always be such   handshake twins? Well, let's  focus on just one of the guests.   What's possible in terms of handshakes? Well if  everybody hates this guy, maybe a gate crasher,   then nobody will want to shake hands with him.  But if this guy is not a complete outcast then   he might shake hands with one other person,  or two three four five or six other people.   The six here is the maximum corresponding  to a popular guy who shakes with everybody   else at the party. So zero to six that's seven  different possible numbers of handshakes and   there are seven guests and so the pigeonhole  principle tells us …. Absolutely nothing,   not yet anyway. With seven guests and seven  possible numbers of shakes, we're going to   have to work a little harder. But here's a nifty  insight. If there's an unpopular guy, a zero,   then there also cannot be super popular  guys. Right? A Mr Popular could shake   hands with everybody else but not with a  zero guy. And the converse is also true.   If there's a Mr Popular who shakes hands  with everyone there cannot be a zero guy.   This means that the possible handshake numbers at  our party are either zero to five or one to six.   So at any specific seven guest party there  are only six possible handshake numbers.   And yep now the pigeonhole principle works.  Two guests must shake the same number of times.   Tada, very pretty, isn't it? You got it?   Good! Then here's a challenge for you. Try  to prove this advanced pigeon party theorem:   at any party with six people at least one of the  following handshaking scenarios will manifest:   first scenario there are three people who shake  hands with each other, like this. Second scenario:   there are three people none of  whom shake hands with each other.   And as in the case of the party over there  both scenarios can occur at the same time. This   pigeon party theorem is the starting  point for something called Ramsey theory.   Very interesting and very  powerful stuff. Check it out!   Okay of course all of you are familiar with the  Rubik's cube and most of you will know at least   in principle how to solve it. The trick is to  have up your sleeve three or four algorithms,   set combinations of moves. Then using these few  algorithms over and over in the correct order you   can solve the cube. However, if you started  with a solved cube something cool happens.   Take a solved cube and consider just one  algorithm. Use that algorithm over and over   on the solved cube. Then no matter what  algorithm you choose you will eventually   end up with a solved Rubik's cube. Pretty  surprising right? For example, suppose your   algorithm is the following two-move combo: first  twist the top side clockwise and then twist the   left side counterclockwise. When we do  this over and over this is what happens.   Works and even if you know it's going to work  it's a little hard to believe until you see it,   isn't it. For our algorithm it turns out we had to  repeat it 63 times to get back to the solved cube.   And again what I'm saying is that this will work  with any algorithm any algorithm whatsoever. Start   with a solved cube and repeat your algorithm over  and over and after enough repeats you'll have a   solved cube again. Why does this work? Well,  it's pretty similar to the fractions example   earlier. It amounts to fitting infinitely many  pigeons into finitely many pigeonholes. Let me   explain. First ,our pigeonholes. The Rubik's  cube has this many different configurations   that's a lot of configurations and these  finitely many configurations are our pigeonholes.   Let those dots over there stand for the different  holes the possible configurations of the cube. In   particular, there is one special blue dot.  The blue dot stands for the solved cube.   We're starting with a solved cube  which means we start out at the blue   dot. Now perform the algorithm. That  moves us to some new configuration.   Repeat and you get to yet another configuration.  And so on. Now the important observation to make   is that this process goes on forever. And this  forever stands for the infinitely many pigeons.   But there are only finitely many states and those  finitely many states are the pigeonholes. This   means that eventually, you have to come across a  state that you've already visited on your journey.   Now there are two possibilities.  Either you get back to solved   or you re-enter the path at a different state.  Of course, if that were to happen you'd never   get back to solved because you would now  forever and ever travel on this loop.   So what I'm claiming is that this later joining  cannot happen. And why not? Because that would   mean that there are two different configurations  that our algorithm would move to the orange spot.   And that is definitely impossible  since our algorithm is reversible.   What I mean by this is that if your cube is in a  certain configuration and you execute an algorithm   then by reversing the moves of the algorithm  you must end up where you started. That means   it's impossible to use the algorithm once to  reach a new configuration from two different   starting configurations. That is that orange  dot in the diagram is impossible. Very neat.   Okay so our algorithm whatever it is just loops us  back to the solved cube and then goes on looping.   Actually the same is true no matter where  you begin, the algorithm will loop you back   to that beginning configuration. Let's  say you start here. Okay go for it.   There, another cycle. In fact, it's easy to see  that this second cycle has to be of exactly the   same length as our first cycle. This means that  all the zillions of Rubik's cube configurations   will be split into disjoint cyclical journeys of  equal lengths. That also means that the common   length of our cycles must divide the total number  of configurations that monster number up there.   And you can check that 63 the number of times we  had to repeat that first algorithm I showed you,   that 63 divides our monster number. That's nice  isn't it? And there's another surprise lurking   just around the corner. I might as well just tell  you about it. How long can an algorithm cycle be?   Well there are lots and lots and lots of really  huge numbers that divide the monster up there. So   you might expect really huge cycles as well. But  nope no matter how complicated your algorithm,   it turns out that its cycle length can be  no greater than a relatively tiny 1260.   Challenge for you suppose your algorithm is  right side clockwise top side clockwise left side   clockwise and also bottom side clockwise. How long  is the cycle of this algorithm? Do you like this   stuff so far? Well, two more chapters to go. Our  penultimate puzzle is a very nice problem from the   1972 international mathematical olympiad. Serious  stuff. Start with all the two digit numbers.   Pick any 10 of them. Then the maths olympians were  supposed to show that no matter the 10 numbers   picked there would always be two collections of  these numbers with no overlap and with exactly the   same sum. So in the example there we've chosen  a blue collection and a green collection and   each collection sums to 125. 10 plus 22 plus  93 that's 125 and 17 plus 29 plus 37 plus 42   is 125 again. And that's always true no  matter the 10 numbers originally chosen.   That's pretty amazing isn't it?  So how are we going to show this?   Where are the pigeons and pigeonholes that  will help us? Actually that's pretty easy. The   pigeonholes are the possible sums. So what's the  smallest possible sum you can get in the scenario.   Easy right? The smallest possible sum is 10  corresponding to the collection of just the   one number 10. What about the largest possible  sum? Well that would be the sum of the largest   nine two digit numbers right? And so the largest  sum is definitely no larger than 91 plus 92 all   the way to 99 which is 855. And then from 10 to  855 that's 846 possible sums, 846 pigeonholes.   What about the pigeons? Given 10  chosen numbers we have to figure out   the number of possible collections. Those  10 circles represent our 10 numbers. Now   for any collection of these numbers, each number  either is in the collection or it misses out,   so two possibilities for each number. That means  that there's a total of two times two times two   ten times so 2 to the power of 10 is equal to 1024  possible collections from these 10 numbers. Right?   Almost. Those 1024 collections also  include the collection with none   of the 10 numbers and the collection of all ten.  But these all-or-nothing collections don't work   for us since we actually want two non-empty  collections. So we'll leave those ones out,   giving us 1022 possible collections. And so  there you have your pigeonholes and pigeons.   Great. So there are definitely always two  different collections that have the same sum.   But we're not quite done. Can you see what   the problem is? These two equal sum collections  may have overlaps and those annoying olympiad   examiners asked for non-overlapping collections.  So we'll either have to be happy with the partial   credit, definitely not a bad result for olympiad  problem, or we have to think a little more.   But just a tiny bit more. If there's a  few numbers common to both collections,   we can simply remove those numbers from both  collections. Then, since we're removing the   same numbers from both collections these  new collections will still have equal sums.   Success full credit and as soon as we've completed  the other nine olympiad problems we can go   and claim our gold medal. What a great problem  and what an amazing solution, don't you think?   And having successfully navigated the olympiad  here's your challenge. Find seven integers from   one to one hundred such that no two different  collections from those numbers have the same sum.   Now for the grand finale I want to show  you a famous pigeon-powered card trick.   Here's how it goes: a volunteer chooses five  cards from a standard deck and gives them to me.   I look at them. Then I choose four of the  five cards. Choose choose choose choose. Okay   now I pass the four cards to an assistant. Okay  that's Marty of course. He looks at the cards   and after a moment's consideration announces  what the fifth card is. Pretty amazing right?   And there's no stacked deck no sleight of hand  just pigeons. Do you want to know how this works?   Of course you do :) okay so here's an example.  Suppose the volunteer hands me these five cards.   Then I'll keep the ten of spades  arrange the remaining cards like this   and show them to my assistant. Before you watch  the rest of the video it's really worth you   trying to figure out for yourselves how exactly  the order of those four cards tells my friend   what the remaining fifths card is. So maybe  pause the video and see what you can figure out.   Okay you're back. Figured it out? No? Well for  those still puzzled here's how the trick works.   There are five cards but only four suits. So  our pigeons tell us that there must be at least   two cards of one suit. Focus on two such cards. In  this example there's no choice and I have to think   about the two spades. Okay our pigeons have done  their job they can go and relax now. Now imagine   all 13 spade cards in a circle and highlight our  two cards to 6 and a 10. There. How far are our   cards apart on the circle? Well, starting from 6  and moving the clockwise direction we count one   two three four. Okay four steps. Starting from ten  we have one two three four five six seven eight   nine. We take the smaller of the two walks to be  the distance between the two cards. So in our case   the distance is four. And, notice, since there  are 13 cards in a suit the distance between any   two cards will be at most six. Okay back to our  example. The distance is four with a start card   six and the end card ten. The end card is the  card we keep, the card that our assistant will   have to guess. And the start card is the first  of the four cards that we show to our assistant.   Okay our assistant sees the six of spades  and he knows that we begin by looking at   two cards of the same suit. So he knows the fifth  mystery card must also be a spade. But which one?   What remains for me to do is to communicate that  the mystery card is four steps away from the   starting six on the table. But since we have three  more cards to play with that turns out to be easy.   There are six possible distances we might need  to signal and there are six possible orderings   of the three cards. Kind of a just enough  pigeonhole principle. Here are the details:   we can think of the 52 cards of a standard  deck being arranged in a natural dictionary   order with suits counting first. So c for clubs  comes before d for diamonds then hearts and then   spades. And within the suits cards are ordered as  usual: ace two three four five up to jack queen   king. This means that the dictionary order of  the three remaining cards in our example is this.   Got it? The jack of diamonds comes before the five  of hearts because d comes before h so we have a   bottom card, a middle card and a top card. And  now we label the different orderings of the three   cards from one to six, again as in the dictionary,  like this. BMT in this order stands for one   and this is two three four and since  a distance of four is what we want to   communicate this is the arrangement this is  the arrangement that we show our partner.   Okay ingenious isn't it. I really hope you  like this one. It's called the Fitch Cheney   five card trick named after the  mathematician William Fitch Cheney,   jr who invented it. In fact some people think this  is the best mathematical card trick ever invented.   And to finish off a practice hand for  you. Let's say you are my assistant and   I show you these cards. What's the  card that I'm holding in my hand.   And that's all from me today. I hope you enjoyed  these proofs, all based on the super simple   pigeonhole principle. Which of the proofs did you  like best? Which the least? Please record your   rankings in the comments. It will be interesting.  Well and then until next time. Stay safe.
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Channel: Mathologer
Views: 68,863
Rating: 4.96875 out of 5
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Length: 33min 32sec (2012 seconds)
Published: Sat Apr 10 2021
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