Unacademy All India Prelims Mock Test - II Paper Analysis for UPSC 2024 | Answer Key | IAS English

hello good afternoon and welcome to unacademy a One-Stop destination for the English medium civil services aspirants welcome to unacademy all India prelims mock test paper discussion number two at the expense of repeating myself for prelims 2024 you should attempt as many fulllength mock tests as possible at unacademy we have planned three fulllength mock tests for the civil services aspirants targeting prelims 2024 GS as well as Cat the first one was held on the 26th of May the second one was held yesterday and you would know a day later we conduct the analysis of that paper as well and the third one shall be conducted on the 2nd of June if you are in Delhi and want to attempt this test offline so that you can be aware of the environment that you will see on the 16th of June then please attend this test offline as well but those who can't attend it offline there is always an opportunity to attend this test on the unacademy app so I urge you I request you please take my advice take this test attempt this test on the 2nd of June offline or online your choice but please attempt this and the next day on the 3rd of June we will conduct the analysis of the question paper as well so let's get started and look at all the questions that were asked in yesterday's fulllength mock test paper we'll start with polity followed by International relation s and other subjects one by one let's get started and look at the poity questions but before we do that I urge you to support us by liking this video subscribe to our Channel if you haven't yet and share the links of these sessions with your friends and fellow aspirants let's get started and look at question number one question number 31 as it appeared in the question paper in the mock test but question number one from Pol with reference to nhrc consider the following statement it is a statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and empowerment it can punish the violators of Human Rights and award monetary relief to the victim the nhrc is empowered to inquire into matters only within one year of its occurrence its recommendations are binding on the government on the concerned government or authority this topic is important because you may be aware of Global Alliance of national human rights institutions every 5 years for a national human rights organizations it performs something called accreditation if our nhrc gets a then it can be a member of this organization it can participate in the organs of the United Nations it can also take the governance positions in this organization but if it is B then it can participate in the meetings but it cannot vote it cannot take the governance positions and now for the second time in a in two years the accrediation for our national human rights organization Human Rights Commission has been defered by This Global Alliance because of some allegations because of some controversy and this topic we have discussed in conquered prelims crash course as well so this topic is important it is a statutary body which is true it is a statutary body but it does not fall under the Ministry of Social Justice and empowerment it's under the ministry of Home Affairs it's a statutory body which was created enacted because of the protection of Human Rights Act 1993 in compliance with the Paris principles and that is why this organization This Global Alliance in granting accreditation it will have to check whether the national Human Rights Commission is following adhering to these Paris principles or not which basically means autonomy which basically means all the different sections of the society minorities should get uh membership of this Human Rights Commission it can punish the violators of Human Rights and award monetary relief it does not have the power to punish its recommendations are only advisory in nature they are not even binding so it does not have the power to punish but nhrc is empowered to inquire into a matter only within one year of its occurrence so human rights abuse violation has taken place within a period of one year then nhrc is empowered to inquire into that matter so a only one is the right answer let's look at question number two consider the following features dual polity division of powers by cameralism how many of the above are federal features of Indian constitution you would know that there are five important characteristics of US Constitution which makes US Constitution Federal because for constitutional experts to look at a particular Constitution and then decide whether this Con Constitution is Federal or unitary what it does they look at this Constitution and compare it with the Constitution of the United States if it matches then it's a Federal Constitution if it doesn't then it is something else but what are these characteristics which makes which make US Constitution a federal one five important characteristics number one dual poity or dual government which means government at the center government in the states as well second division of powers or what we can call the distribution of powers that means Powers should be distributed between the center and the state some matters to the center some matters to the states third the Constitution should be written fourth this constitution should be Supreme as well supremacy of the Constitution or what we can also call sometimes the rigidity of the Constitution now rigidity does not mean that Constitution cannot be amended or it is very difficult to amend the Constitution rigidity means if we need to amend the Constitution it should be a joint Act of both Center as well as States both Center and States they have to come together to amend the Constitution unilaterally Center on its own or States on their own cannot change the Constitution and fifth one independence of Judiciary all these are the five important characteristics which make US Constitution a Federal Constitution but so far as India is concerned what are these characteristics or features which we can Call Federal features of Indian constitution because Indian constitution you would know is neither completely unitary nor completely Federal it is quasif federal some say it is a Federal Constitution with some unitary features some experts say it is a unitary Constitution with some federal features but we can all agree on a name on a term that it is quasi federal or we can say our constitution has some centralizing tendency although it is federalism but there is there are some provisions of the Constitution which are biased in favor of a strong Center but be there as it may what are the federal features of our constitution dual poity correct division of powers yes bicameralism where at the center for example we have two houses Lo saaba and rajas saaba rajas saaba is the house of Elders but also Council of states it represents the interest of states in Indian Parliament so it's a federal chamber of Indian Parliament so see all the three is the right answer let's look at another question consider the following statements source of authority of the Constitution objectives of the Constitution date of adoption of the Constitution how many of the above are revealed by the preamble to the Indian constitution we the people of India which means the first thing that Preamble tells us what is the source of authority of the Constitution from where does the Constitution derive its Authority from the people of this country We the People second it tells us what is the nature of the Indian State what is the nature of the Indian State Sovereign socialist secular Democratic Republic then what are the objectives of the Constitution justice social economic political Liberty equality fraternity Dignity of an individual and we have given to ourselves this constitution on the 26th of November 1949 which is the date on which the Constitution was adopted so all these three things are revealed by the Preamble and you would know Preamble is the philosophy of the Constitution it's the identity card of the Constitution clear it's also an integral part of the Constitution another question the elected members of both houses of the parliament the elected members of the legislative Assemblies of the states the elected members of the legislative assembly of the union territories of Delhi and puducheri how many of the above are constituents of the president's Electoral College in India president is elected by the people of India correct yes but not directly indirectly how through their representatives who are part of the electoral college now who are part of the Electoral College elected members of both Lo as well as rajas saaba which means the 12 nominated members of rajas saaba they are not part of the Electoral College before 2020 there used to be two Anglo Indians nominated to Lok saaba those also were not part of the Electoral College elected members of the legislative assemblies they are part of the Electoral College because prior to 2020 there used to be one nominated MLA to a legislative assembly as well there could have been from Anglo Indian Community now that reservation is no longer available so elected members of both houses of the parliament elected members of the State Legislative assemblies not the legislative councils and the mlas elected MLS of two union territories which have a legislative assembly right now which is Delhi and puducheri how many are part of the Electoral College all three clear but what is the electoral college for the Vice President of India the electoral college for the Vice President of India consists of members of both houses of the parliament which means nominated as well as elected but that is for the vice president that's not for the president of India clear let's look at another question consider the following statements about to the trans to the funds under members of parliament local area development scheme MP lats mlad funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health education you would know that under the scheme if I am the member of the parliament I can recommend Works to the tune of 5 crores perom this money will not be given to me I will have to recommend it to the district collector that create durable Assets in my constituency to the tune of 5 CR rupees every year which can be laying down a road which can be laying down a a water pump durable assets so this statement is correct the ministry of statistics and program implement mentation has been responsible for policy formation release of uh funds and prescribing monitoring mechanism for implementation of the scheme yes this scheme is under the ministry of statistics and program implementation MPS are required to wait for the actual fund to be released by the ministry before recommending new projects no that is not necessary now because even if the previous funds were not released you can still recommend Works a specified portion of each MP's fund must benefit scst populations 5 crores perom 15% of it you could spend on the SC population areas 7 and a half% on the STD population areas so yes specific amount portion of this fund is for the scst population how many given statements is or are correct C only three is the right answer because the third statement is incorrect with reference to the institutional developments the Verma Committee of 1999 was appointed JS Verma Committee of 2013 is different that was constituted to suggest changes in our criminal laws following the horrific uh gang rape of niraya on December 16 2012 so that is to suggest reforms in our criminal laws in 1999 it was set up to identify the existence of legal Provisions for the implementation of fundamental duties because fundamental duties applicable only for the citizens of India under part four capital A of the Constitution under article 51 capital A of the Constitution fundamental duties originally were not part of the Constitution they were added to the Constitution by the 42 Constitutional Amendment act 1976 but these duties were applicable on the citizens but these duties were not binding as well binding in the sense there was no law which could punish you if you're not following the fundamental duty but then Verma committee was asked can you identify are there legal Provisions for the implementation of fundamental duties said yes look at the protection of insults to National Honors act Wildlife protection act for example one fundamental duty is to abide by the Constitution respect its ideals flag and the national anthem if you disrespect it you can be booked under protection of insults to National Honor act 1971 so there is a legal provision for that this is something that you are aware of D is the right answer let's look at question 39 consider the following statements in financial matters rajas saaba has less Powers than Lok SAA this is correct why because money Bill can be introduced only in Lok SAA not in rajas saaba even Financial bill under article 117 can be introduced only in loksabha and not in rajas saaba and even the passage of money Bill rajas saaba has an inferior role because once a money bill is passed by Lok SAA by simple majority it is sent to rajas SAA rajas saaba cannot reject a money Bill rajas saaba cannot amend a money Bill Raj sa can only make recommendations to a money Bill but if these recommendations are not acceptable to Lo SAA even then the bill is passed if rajas saaba does not act on this money money Bill for 14 days even then the bill is passed so I'm sure you are aware of these details so yes this statement is correct in financial matters rajas SAA has less Powers than that of the Lok SAA only Lo SAA can vote on the demand for Grants this is also correct only Lo SAA can vote on the demands for Grants clear and this voting can only take place on the expenditure made on the Consolidated fund of India not on expenditure charged on the Consolidated fund of India and that's something you're aware of but what is the question asking both statement one and two are correct and statement two is the correct explanation of statement one both statement one and two are correct and statement two is not the correct explanation for statement one I would go with B why because it's an implication rajas saaba has inferior role as compared to Lo SAA one such implication of that is only Lo SAA can vote on the demand for Grants but this does not explain statement one what explains statement one is no taxation without representation that was the cry in United States that's uh without our representation without giving representation to the people no taxes should be imposed so since Lo SAA is directly elected by the people and rajas saaba is not directly elected by the people that is why Tax Matters Money Matters loksabha has more Powers as compared to rajas saaba so both statements are correct but statement two is not the correct explanation of statement one clear let's look at another question consider the following matters ordinary Bill Constitutional Amendment Bill impeachment of the president removal of a Supreme Court Judge the constitution of India provides for a joint sitting of the two houses of the parliament when there occurs a deadlock over how many of the above mentioned matters on an ordinary Bill there can be a deadlock and what is this Deadlock let's suppose this bill originated in loksabha loksabha passes this bill rajas saaba rejects this bill if rajas saaba rejects this bill then there is a deadlock and to resolve this deadlock there is a provision of joint sitting there can be a joint sitting it's not mandatory that whenever there is a deadlock there has to be a joint sitting there can be joint sitting second option can be Lo saaba passes a bill rajas saaba amends this bill and when this bill is sent back to Lo SAA Lo SAA does not agree with these amendments which means there is a deadlock and to resolve this deadlock there can be a joint setting of the two houses or loksabha passes a bill rajas saaba does not act for 6 months after the expiry of 6 months there is a deadlock and to resolve this deadlock there can be a joint sitting of the two houses so this deadlock can be for an ordinary bill for a constitutional amendment Bill no why because Constitution says a constitutional amendment bill under article 368 should be passed by both houses of the parliament separately there is no provision for joint sitting for impeachment of the President also there is no joint sitting for the removal of the Supreme Court Judge also there is no joint setting separately both houses should pass these resolutions so a only one is the right answer clear let's look at another question the constitution of India has not fixed the term of office of members of the rajes saaba correct because that is something thing that representation of the people act 1951 talks about that the term of rajas saaba MP is listen to me carefully not the term of rajas saaba rajas saaba don't confuse yourself rajas saaba is the permanent House of Indian Parliament not subject to dissolution so we are talking about what is the term of office of a rajas saaba MP and that is 6 years provided by the represent ation of the people act that is not mentioned in the Constitution but how do we ensure that rajas saaba is the permanent House onethird of the members retire every 2 years but who are these one-third members who will retire after 2 years representation of the people act gave this power to the president of India through a draw of lots one3 were made to retire then in 1954 through a draw of lots one3 were made to retire again I am sure you are aware of it that's something that we have also taught in the class I have also taught in the class but here that power is with the president not with the chairman so this statement is incorrect so statement one is correct but statement two is incorrect that is why C is the right answer consider the following pairs four schedule talks about allocation of seats in loksabha and union territories fourth schedule talks about what representation of states in the rajas saaba who talks about allocation of seats in loksabha to the states and union territories that is provided by the representation of the people act 1950 so this is not correctly matched fifth schedule talks about the administration of the scheduled areas and tribal areas in States other than Asam megala mesoram and thura why not these four states because these four states are dealt separately under schedule six of the Constitution so this is correctly matched 8th schedule talks about the languages recognized by the Constitution yes there are 22 languages recogn ized under 8 schedule if you need further information then initially there were 14 languages at the time of the commencement of the Constitution so this also correctly matched so B only two are correctly matched let's look at the last question from Indian polity in India consider the following statements about alternate dispute resolution ADR in India loc adalats are part of ADR but their final decision is not binding on the parties and is appealable in a court of law it is binding the decision of the Lo adalat is binding on the two parties if these two parties have approached this Lo adala together but yes you can still file a new petition before the court but this decision of the Lo adalat cannot be appealed before another Court DPSS of equal justice and free legal aid as engraved in article 39a of Indian constitution can be achieved through ADR this 39a which talks about a a duty on the state that what you have to do you have to whether through laws or through schemes provide for free legal aid Equal justice and this is a directive principle of State policy and this is something which was added to the Constitution it was not originally part of the Constitution it was added to the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment act 1976 one more further detail that's something that we have discussed in crash course as well but I can tell you here as well lest you forget Delhi univers or Delhi law University's project 39a is based on um article 39 capital A so two only is the right answer that is it uh from the world of Indian polity these questions we had to discuss which were asked in the mock test which was held yesterday again I'll repeat myself another test is to be conducted on the 2 of June GS as well as csat offline as well as online if you want an offline environment please go to Delhi the link is provided in the video description and attempt that test if not there is always an option of attending the test online that is it from the discussion on Indian polity I'll ask and request Chan sir to come and discuss the questions related to international relations and if you have understood these poity topics please don't forget to press the like button I'll see you again with another discussion on Indian polity on the 3rd of June 2024 please wait don't go anywhere Chan s is here anytime now see you bye-bye e e e hello everyone very good afternoon and welcome to unacademy a One-Stop destination for the English medium civil services aspirants welcome to the all-india prelims mock test so this is mock test number two and the test was conducted yesterday as you all know and today we are discussing the important questions and analyzing the question paper now before I start I know sarmat s has already announced this but there could be some students who might have just joined us so please note that we are conducting all India prelims mock test to help you prepare for the upcoming prelims exam two mock tests are already done and the third test will be conducted on the 2nd of June so do take up these test without fail the link for the same is provided in the video description below and also don't forget if you guys are liking our initiatives which is helping you revise current affairs and static topics through mcqs if you're liking and benefiting from this do support us with your likes with your comments and don't forget to subscribe to our channel so let's begin with the discussion of ir questions in the second mock test let's look at question number 89 consider the following statements regarding operation sunalp the first statement says Indian Navy launched operation sculp to deal with the deteriorating Maritime security situation across the Indo Pacific region this statement is incorrect why because operation skulp was initially launched in 2019 by the Indian Navy and the purpose of operation sankalp was to secure the shipping channels near the straight of hormo that you can see here in the map the heru strait is a strategic choke point that links the Persian Gulf over here with the Gulf of Oman it's one of the most important shipping routs especially for oil shipments and countries like India are heavily dependent on this shipping route back in 2019 tensions had escalated between us and Iran and Iran had started disrupting the movement of ships through the horu strait there were few non-state actors who were allegedly sponsored by Iran who were targeting the oil carrying cargo ships through the heru street so this was posing a threat to oil shipment and the commercial shipping traffic which could have a adverse impact on the Indian economy especially on India's energy security it's in this context that Indian Navy launched a maritime operation called operation SEL since then operation SEL has been expanded as well not just to deal with non-state threats posed by various extremist groups in the region but even the threats posed by piracy extending towards Horn of Africa because in the last few months we saw in we saw an increase in piracy incidents of the coast of Somalia near the Gulf of Aden extending towards Babel mandb Strait and after the Gaza War began in West Asia the houis of Yemen who are also allegedly sponsored by Iran they started retaliating against Israeli and American interests and they started targeting the commercial ships passing through the Red Sea route so following these heightened tensions due to Pirate attacks and attacks by houis and other non-state actors Indian Navy expanded operation sculp across the Gulf region so it's not focused on the entire indopacific that is why statement one is incorrect it is focused only on the Gulf region you can see statement number four which says operation sculp ensures the safe passage of Indian flagged vessels in the Gulf region this statement is absolutely correct the mission or the primary objective of operation sankalp is to stabilize these shipping routs through the hormo strait initially later through the bble mandev strait as well so that is why one is incorrect and four is correct now let's look at statement number two operation sculp is part of a EU Le Coalition Force Under the command of NATO this statement is incorrect because operation sculp is a standalone mission of the Indian Navy alone it's not under the command of of any foreign multinational force of course India cooperates with other countries the Indian Navy Works closely with the Navies of European countries United States Japan and even China we collaborate with them we coordinate during these anti-piracy missions and other safety missions in the in the Gulf region right we do collaborate with the foreign navies but it's not under the command of NATO and it's not a part of a EU Le coalition so that that is why the statement is completely incorrect of course the EU Naval forces they have their own anti-piracy missions going on in the region other countries like us China Japan and even Australia they all have their Naval deployments in the same region we do work with them coordinate with them but operation sculp is not part of it right it's a independent Standalone mission of the Indian Navy so statement two is wrong statement three says it aims to secure international shipping routs against the threats posed by piracy and attacks from non-state actors like the houti rebels we just understood that this statement is absolutely correct so what's the right answer how many statements are correct only two statements are correct so option b becomes the right answer let's look at question number 90 consider the following statements we need to check which of the given statements are correct the first statement says mq 9bc Guardian is a maritime focused version of the sky Guardian remotely piloted aircraft system from the United States of America remotely piloted aircraft system is nothing but an unmanned aerial vehicle a UAV or as we call it a drone recently the mq9b drones also popularly called the predator drones from the United States has been in the news the US forces have used the predator drones in various conflict zones from Yemen to Afghanistan to Iraq and last year when PM Modi visited the United States India and us have signed a government to government deal to procure 31 of these armed drones they will be distributed between all the three armed forces of India some of them are the maritime version or the maritime variant called the sea Guardian the sea Guardian is a maritime variant of the predator drone so it can be specifically used for intelligence gathering surveillance and reconnaissance and since these are armed drones which carry um offensive missiles and weapon systems like the Hellfire missiles it can be used for Target acquisition and targeted strikes as well understood so some of them will be for the Indian Navy these are the maritime variants called the sea Guardian we're also procuring the sky Guardian variant for Indian army and also the Indian Air Force so that is why the topic was a new so statement one is absolutely correct it's produced by General atomics which is a major Aerospace and defense manufacturer from the United States now looking at second statement India is procuring the unarmed version of the sea and landbased variants for ISR missions only this statement is obviously wrong we are not procuring the unarmed version we are procuring the armed variant of the mq9b drones and they can be used not just for ISR missions they can be used for Target acquisition and as well as for strike missions offensive strike missions as well so the correct answer would be option A one only let's look at the next question question number 91 consider the following statements we need to check which of the given statements is or are correct first statement says operation Prosperity Guardian is a us-led military operation by a multinational coalition to respond to houti Leed attacks on shipping in the Red Sea second statement says Mission and aspis is a EU Naval mission to protect cargo ships in the Red Sea from Yemen's houti Rebels so this question this topic is of course related to what we discussed earlier under operation sankalp but it helps you cover other important related news items which were in the current affairs such as operation Prosperity guardian and Mission aspius as you all know after the Gaza War began in October 2023 the houis from Yemen who are allegedly sponsored by Iran they started retaliating against Israeli and American interests as I was mentioning earlier so in the Red Sea in particular near Babel mandb Strait over here and also in the Gulf of Aden and extending towards the Arabian Sea closer to the coastline with India across this entire stretch from Red Sea to Arabian Sea several targeted strikes of carried out by the houis they used armed uavs and as well as ballistic missiles and cruise missiles which are provided through Iran Iran has not just funded the huis it has armed the houis as well so the houis who are leading a Civil War in Yemen right they have access to Advanced Weaponry such as armed uavs missiles Etc and using them they have launched targeted attacks against Israeli American ships and sometimes they've targeted the ships of other countries as well a few ships headed towards India were also targeted so this entire region got destabilized as a result of these attacks and the shipping route through the Red Sea was affected it's one of the vital shipping lanes that connects Indian Ocean with the Atlantic Ocean especially for trade between India and Europe and India and North Africa this shipping route is absolutely critical so due to these attacks many ships they started diverting away from the Red Sea and they started taking the longer route by circumnavigating around Africa right they would move around West Africa take a turn at Cape of Good Hope in South Africa then enter the Indian Ocean through mozambik channel so this increased the travel time increased the cost of shipping increased the insurance cost as well and this had a economic impact especially with regard to global commodity prices so to stabilize the region and to counter these attacks by the houis the United States and also European Union they launched their parallel missions one is Operation Prosperity Guardian as mentioned in the first statement and second is Mission asidus by the EU Naval Force command now what's the difference between the two see when the US launched operation Prosperity Guardian it was launched under the combined Maritime forces which is a multinational Coalition Naval force that is headquartered in Bahrain in bahin you have the cmf which is a multinational Naval Force led by the US and India is also a member of the cmf India recently became a full-time member of combined Maritime forces it mainly focuses on anti-piracy missions it secures the shipping lanes from heru Strait to Horn of Africa to Red Sea but interestingly India did not take part in operation Prosperity Guardian even the EU Naval forces did not take part in the us-led mission because operation Prosperity Guardian was LED under the command of the United States if it was under the command of combined Maritime forces then India and other European navies wouldn't have had a problem in taking part in operation Prosperity Guardian but this would be a us-led a us-led naval mission that is why very few countries like Australia Canada then even United Kingdom and Sri Lanka and few other interested states only they took part in prosperity Guardian as it was led by the US Navy now if you know India follows independent foreign policy we don't align with such independent unilateral missions military missions right we don't enter any such military alliances so India carefully stepped out of operation Prosperity Guardian even though we are a member of cmf because it would not be under the cmf command based out of it would be under the US Navy command even the NATO allies of us like France Italy Spain they even they had a discomfort in being part of a us-led mission so the EU Naval forces launched their separate mission called Mission aspis so the EU Naval Force command launched a similar mission in the Red Sea Gulf region to protect commercial shipping and to Target the houis who are disrupting international shipping so both the given statements are correct your right answer would be option C both 1 and two now let's look at question number 97 very simple straightforward question saom land port was inaugurated by the prime minister of India recently in which of the following states West Bengal Punjab Manipur tripura see land ports where we have established icps or integrated check post are very crucial for promoting border trade especially with the land borders that we share with Pakistan with Nepal Bhutan Myanmar and Bangladesh we are establishing these icps or integrated check posts which are essentially land port facilities so such landport facilities they help in the movement of people they will facilitate the movement of goods they will promote cultural ties as well along with promoting economic and trade relations between the two neighboring countries so India has been setting up such icps with Pakistan we have few icps with Nepal we have set up icps with Myanmar with Bangladesh and we have proposed new icps along the borders with Bhutan as well these facilities are established by the landport authorities of India the land port authority of India which comes under the ministry of Home Affairs because mha is responsible for border security and Border management is that clear so saom landport is one of the important trading points between India and Bangladesh and it is located in the state of tripura option D is your correct answer is that clear please look at the map here in tripura where tripura shares this border with Bangladesh there is an important trading trading location a commercial town called saom which is situated on the banks of the feny river so sabum is already a trading center a commercial center India has plans for establishing a special economic zone so from here through this new land port or ICP which has been inaugurated by the PM we are looking to increase border trade with Bangladesh and also use the feny river which connects with the Chittagong Port over here to provide alternate access to the northeast of India Northeastern markets can be linked with Bay of Bengal through this route through the landport at sabom we can ship the goods through the feny river bring it to Chittagong Port of Bangladesh and then export it from here thus giving C access to the landlocked Northeast region so that is why the topic is very important now I'll give you one small assignment can you find out the location of other icps that we have with Pakistan Nepal Myanmar and the other icps with Bangladesh and also the proposed land ports with Bhutan please find out the locations and mention that in the comments below coming to question number 98 consider the following statements with regard to India Sri Lanka relations it's related to the KATU controversy which was triggered during the recent elections that are being held in India Prime Minister Modi and even foreign minister J Shanker triggered a controversy regarding the kachao island by alleging that then prime minister indraa Gandhi II had gifted away kachu to Sri Lanka in this context there were lot of Articles regarding kachu and even another small island called the waj bank so let's take up the question kacha tiu is an uninhabited Island between India Sri Lanka located in the park straight this statement is absolutely correct please look at the map this is where kachu is located it's located in the park straight over here right between jaffna peninsula of Sri Lanka the northern province and the Southeast coast of Tamil Nadu between the two in park Strait you have the small island called kachao in 1974 1976 when we settled the India Sri Lanka Maritime boundary line and signed the maritime boundary agreements India agreed to give kachu to Sri Lanka because there has been uh contradicting claims over kachu since several centuries even from Colonial times right there have been contradicting claims between India and Sri Lanka over the ownership of kacha it has been important for fishermen on both the sides because fishermen used to uh take rest at this island they would dock the boats dry their Nets they would also visit kacha tiu for a cultural Fest there is one Church the St Anthony's church and this is a sacred pilgrimage for the Christians the Christian Coastal communities present in Tamil Nadu and also in jafna so economically culturally kacha has been significant for fishermen on both the sides but through the maritime boundary agreement India seeded its claim over kachu to Sri Lanka so this is where the controversy originates but please remember kacha tiu is not habit it doesn't have a habitable population because there is no permanent source of drinking water it was formed due to a volcanic eruption in the 1300s it's a very small piece of Island and it doesn't have any permanent source of fresh water so it's not suitable for human habitation so there's no permanent human settlement here understood so along with kachu being transferred the economic rights around the region the exclusive economic zone would also get transferred to Sri Lanka but in return India got access to wag bank that you can see over here to the south of Tamil Nadu to the south of kanyakumari you have a small iset called W Bank India got sovereignty over this region and we got exclusive fishing rights because watch bank is one of the richest fishing grounds in the world now if you come back to the question read the statements given here you can say that statement number two is also correct because watch bank is one of the world's richest fishing grounds it's blessed with Fisheries resources and India has exclusive access to these resources as it is part of our ezed third statement is also correct because kachu is not suited for a permanent human settlement as there is no source of drinking water but however fourth statement is wrong it's incorrect it says India Sri Lanka Maritime boundary agreement of 1976 recognized W Bank as part of India's territorial Waters this is where the statement goes wrong it's not part of India's territorial Waters territorial Waters extends only up to 12 nautical miles from the Baseline But If You observe the map you can see watch bank is located at quite a distance from kanyakumari so it is part of our exclusive economic zone it's within India's ezed which gives India exclusive rights over the fishing grounds present near watch bank but it's not within our territorial Waters that's why statement four is wrong so what's the correct answer option C only three given statements are right now coming to the last IR question question number 100 consider the following about ipf indopacific economic framework ipf is intended to advance resilience sustainability inclusiveness economic growth fairness competitiveness for member economies India has decied Ed to join one of the four Cooperative programs under the clean energy pillar of the us-led ipf first I'll give you the answer and then a quick explanation both the given statements are correct so option C is your right answer both one and two so what is ipf ipf is a economic framework proposed by the US and established by the US recently it is focused on the indopacific region as the name itself tells you but it is is not a Free Trade Agreement please remember it's not your regular FDA is that clear under ipf there is no reduction of tariffs proposed as of now right the focus is not on reducing the barriers to trade especially tariff based barriers that is not the purpose so it's not an FDA it's a economic cooperation framework so as soon as us proposed the initiative in 2021 right and by 2022 it was established formally as well initially 12 countries from Indo Pacific signed up for the initiative it included India as well and many Southeast Asian economies like Malaysia Singapore Etc and even the close allies of us like Australia New Zealand Japan Etc so total of 13 countries established the ipf then the 14th country also joined which is Fiji Fiji was the last country to join ipf kind kindly remember this fact there could be a prelims question so Fiji from the South Pacific also became a member so under ipf there are four pillars which have been identified for economic cooperation which are the four pillars the trade pillar Supply chains clean economy and fair economy so the countries have the choice to either opt for all the pillars or maybe some of the pillars with which they are comfortable with so India has joined the supply chain initiative to to build resilience in Global Supply chains we are part of the clean economy initiative to reduce emissions to focus on decarbonization so under the clean economy pillar we have become part of the framework on carbon markets to promote carbon trading that's what the second statement was asking about the goal here is to promote sustainable trade to bring common policies regulations amongst the member countries to improve the trade relations amongst the indopacific Nations India is also part of the fair economy pillar which focuses on good governance tackling government corruption synchronizing the labor laws and other regulations and policies so that there is a a Level Playing Field for trade in the Indo Pacific but however India has not joined the trade pillar because India fears that in the future tariff reduction might be made a part of it which could adversely affect India's domestic industry it might lead to cheap Imports flooding the Indian market so we are only an observe to trade pillar we are not a member of trade pillar but we have joined the other three pillars and under the clean economy pillar we have recently joined the carbon Market mechanism to promote carbon trading we are considering other initiatives under clean economy like uh sustainable electricity clean electricity we're also considering the use of clean aviation fuel these are some proposed pillars under clean economy which India is also keeping under consideration all right so these were the developments and hence both the the statements are correct and option C is your right answer so on this note I end my discussion of the IR questions so don't go anywhere I'm handing over to Abhishek sir who will be discussing all the history questions that had appeared in the second mock test so don't forget if you like the initiative do support us through your likes through your comments and do subscribe to our Channel just hang in there for a couple of minutes abishek sir will take over and you get to you get to look at the answer and explanation of all the history questions thanks for watching we'll be back in 1 or 2 minutes e e e welcome back so now we'll be discussing the questions related to history so there were 16 questions on the paper with regards to history itself and out of these 16 questions most of them were analytical and quite representative of the pattern now when we talk about the first Mock and the second mock the first mock had at least two to three very difficult questions on the other hand with regards to this mock the questions were a tad easier but more conceptual and analytical and therefore it becomes a even better test of your preparation so with this let's look at the questions which we have to cover the first one is question number 41 and it's related to the hesara temple let's look at the statements it says the temple is dedicated to both Lord Shiva and Lord Vishnu it features a dual Shrine itself it is renowned for its intricate sculpture that depicts scenes from Hindu epics such as the ramayana and the Mahabharata then the temple was constructed during the reign of Vishnu and the fourth statement which is the temple complex includes an impressive number of intricate carvings and unique in design in that regard now if you look at the statements itself they're quite descriptive but the more the descriptive the bigger the problem for a candidate now here is it rowned for intricate sculptures yes the whole Temple itself was added into the list of the UNESCO because of that because it is repetive of the what we call as vesara style further was it is it constructed under Vishnu vardan yes Vishnu vardan is actually credited for both the hesara temple and the chesar temple under the same what we call as assemblage chesa Temple and oar Temple both under Vishnu vardan and the temple complex includes increate cves pillars they're sometimes also called the glossy pillars of the vesara style they are known for their very very very shiny what we call as texture and touring on it this is also correct however the first statement is incorrect because it is not a dual Shrine it is dedicated to Lord Shiva and not Lord Vishnu this is a very big giveaway because whenever you talk about this whole assemblage itself we never talk about none of the temples are dual shines in that sense and in South India itself and in central India it would be very rare to have dual shines in that regard so here the three statements are correct so only three with this let's move to the next question related to the Portuguese Advent of Europeans has now become a very important area out of which upsc is asking a question year on year now so the first Portuguese fort in India was established at Kochi in 1503 the Portuguese were the first Europeans to establish a sea route to India the Treaty of telis divided the newly discovered lands outside Europe between Portugal and Spain the estad India was the administrative structure established by the Portuguese to govern their Indian territories which of the statements is are correct now the first statement is something which mostly puts the direction of the aspirant in the wrong direction because it says first it says Fort if it said first Portuguese establishment or first Portuguese Factory that to Temporary then it would be Calicut but if it says first Portuguese Fort or permanent establishment then this statement is totally correct this is a very big dichotomy which exists within adment of Europeans half of the sources will say that it is Calicut some of them will say Kochi but I'm telling you when it is temporary because what cabal has created in 1500 was destroyed by the locals when there was a certain Skirmish between zamorian and the Portuguese because cabal wanted more Monopoly in that sense this is a correct statement if it had said first Portuguese establishment then it would have been a problem it's saying Fort so Fort Emanuel was Al in the news so it is the correct statement are they the first to find a SE root to India yes vasod deama totally correct then Treaty of telis if you don't know about the Treaty of teles it is basically an imaginary line which was drawn between the so-called old world or Europe the African sector and the Orient in the Atlantic after Columbus and the initial developments of what we call as a discovery of the new world with the discovery of the new world in 1494 there was a imaginary La line drawn in the Atlantic region itself which basically divided the whole world into two parts one with the Spanish the other one with the Portuguese and that is why the Spanish more or less were never interested in the East Indies they were always interested in the West Indies and that's why the Portuguese after Brazil never really wanted to expand in the new world itself and this is also totally correct is EST the India the ad ative structure this estado itself means state in Portuguese so it is also correct here all four statements are correct and estad India was based on the concept of a vice Roy or Governor sitting in Goa Goa was the headquarters of all the establishments in the Indian Ocean world and from Goa they had captains and governors who were governing different parts of the world at that point of time so this is a very good question to test your understanding of Advent of Europeans and Portuguese then we talk about the ram temple in Aria a very very important moment in Indian cultural history itself and it is talking about the architecture this is a very realistic question which can come in the examination so let's read it out the temple is designated or designed following the nagara style of architecture which is characterized by a kilina shikar or Spire the main Temple complex is built using Granite reflecting the traditional South Indian type of Temple construction the temple plan includes a San sanctorum which is gar griha uh par shath and a mandap for the devotees which of them are correct now we already know that the first statement is correct which is aodha Ram Temple has been designated as nagara style however it has certain features of the visara style also which would mean the zigzag pattern in which the whole plan has been made which is very very reminiscent of what we call as jagti within the concept of the visara style itself this is the whole plan if you look at the whole Temple from the point you enter to the whole sanctum sanctorum the Gara it has that very beautiful zigzag design if you look it through the front it will look something like this a very interesting way of making the whole plan itself this is where it is nagara style has a little bit of elements of visara so this is totally correct then it says does it have a sanum sanctorum obviously if it is nagara style it will have a gria it will have a pin PA it will have a mandap it will have all these elements this is also correct now the second statement is the more trickier one because it is asking you the material used and here it says the main Temple complex is using Granite which reflects the South Indian type of Temple construction it is not Granite it is actually sandstone and even in the southern sector in dravida style we don't use Granite too much now when we talk about Sandstone there's also one more peculiarity here which is the minimal use of iron within the whole Temple complex itself and therefore only two statements are correct there was no use of iron in order to increase the what we call as the life of the temple structure itself because iron over a period of time would actually start to give way so Sandstone was used with proper carving and a lot of scientific testing was done so that the sanctity of that Sandstone was totally correct so this is again a very interesting question we've asked aodha Ram temple in different forms in conquer prelims here and you should be now getting these type of questions correct in the examination now with regards to Anor in being in the news the eighth wonder of the world this question is also testing her understanding of Hinduism outside India so with regards to prominent temples which are outside India which of the statements is correct Anor dedicated to the tri morti gods of the Hindu Pantheon is a UNESCO world heritage site the pran temple in Java is the world's largest Hindu temple the pashupatinath temple in Katmandu has a shivar linga with four faces and the pr vhar temple in Cambodia is dedicated to the sun now here if you know the basic details of angat you will be able to eliminate these two why firstly angat is the largest Hindu complex and the pran temple which is in Indonesia is the second largest so this is incorrect the first statement is incorrect because Anor vat is not known for the three mores which is Brahma Vishnu Mahesh rather it is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and later it is converted to a Buddhist temple complex so either it is Buddhism or it is Lord Vishnu and not Tri mortis so this is also incorrect now you have the P vhar temple in Cambodia dedicated to the sun no this is totally incorrect this is Lord Shiva and the correct statement here is C that it Katmandu on the bagmati river itself you should remember this bagmati River itself we have a very important Shiva Temple which is having a very specific type of a linga with four sides of what we call as shiva's engraving or face on it itself very important good question based on the basic ideas of the temples which have been in the news in the past one year with this let's move to question number 45 vij nagara Empire terminology question this one may be the first one which would have found a little bit difficult as it is Medieval India students tend to struggle in the terminology questions are very common and upsc has made it a point to ask at least two to three questions the past four to 5 years so term meaning the Asana the kadara Mana amra or amam portion of land or plot in a village Military Department land revenue department grant to soldiers now if you have any idea of the administrative structures of the vijan nagara Empire you would know that amaram was a grant given to soldiers that is why the Amar NAA system itself the a being used as a terminology of soldiers so this is totally correct you would also know something which is that Mana was a plot or a land grant which was given to the aigar system or the village intermediary such as the accountant the headman or the Watchmen these are three hereditary positions which used to exist within the AAR system the way it used to happen was you had the Raya then you have the nayakar or under the nanara system and under the nanara system you have the aigar system so under AAR system basically the model which is replicated here which is decentralization of power is also replicated here in the form of the Watchmen the uh accountant and the headman and here if they were mostly paid in what are called Mana grants so this is incorrect basically this should be the one which should be actually the right answer for Mana at the same point of time Asana and the kadara are the two terminologies which you would again not know basically three and one have been reversed the portion of land is mana and the land Revenue Department is called Asana and kadara is totally correct which is it is uh the military department so you have two correct so correctly matched only two two of them are incorrect two of them are correct please do learn these things this is not a very difficult question because it should be on your fingertips by now which is the terminologies of ancient medieval and specifically vijan nagara mugal Empire very common question questions which can be asked with this let's move to question number 46 an easy question if your art and culture Basics are totally in the right space itself and you revised very very well which of the following statements best describes the significance of martial arts in the history of India the martial arts in India primarily evolved as a means of self-defense against foreign Invaders the practice of martial arts is has its root in ancient Vic text and scriptures emphasizing spiritual and philosophical developments or aspects martial arts are exclusively practiced by the chatas as a way of warfare it is it started after the establishment of Buddhist monasteries and were taught as a form of self-discipline now if you have any idea of where martial art start you would automatically be able to eliminate this because it is it has nothing to do with foreign invasions at the same point of time it was not exclusive to the chatas it could be practiced by anybody then it has nothing to do with Buddhism rather our martial arts have origin in the Vic tradition and thereafter it was adopted in different sectors in a different way and this is the right answer others have small small small small incorrect aspects which make them and in this in the exam context this could be confusing because there are very small deviations in the ideas but if your concepts are clear you will get this this question also correct in the larger idea of your technique of looking at an examination okay this is an interesting question it is related to art and culture and this time you can see art and culture has been asked quite a lot because this is an area which comes in the examination and art and culture specifically mugal architecture is a very important syncretic zone so which architectural feature is the most emblematic of the fusion of Rajasthani Gujarati style in or with mugal architect or inmal architecture basically it's asking you what makes indo-islamic architecture indo-islamic and what is the most interesting out of these which is that most important and interesting feature which is emblematic which is representative of the fusion of Rajasthani Gujarati see when we talk about moual architecture there are there is Persian what we call as Indian or you can call as native Plus plus Bengali Rajasthani which I use as a term as Indian Rajasthani Gujarati even decy Elements which were added within the concept of architecture and therefore it is emblematic of multiple fusions a fusion of Rajasthani Gujarati a fusion of Persian and Islamic or Persian with indigenous designs itself so the indigenous have multiple aspects Persian has its own with the Star of David in the humay Tomb itself or the inverted Lotus with the Star of David in the humay Tomb is very very interesting aspect of how the Persian influence was also coming in so the answer to this question you have chhatri Ivans the pisi cot or arabisk here the answer is if you have any idea of architecture you would automatically mark it as a see I have images for you this is a mugal chhatri and and though Akbar was obsessed by it mugal chhatri is a very important intersectionality or Fusion of Rajasthani Gujarati Styles because this was very very common in Rajasthan and Gujarat with you can see inverted Lotus marble and and the architecture is reminiscent of how they used to make what are called as kiosk doed kiosk as they are called the doed kios like this you have the concept of you have the concept of Rajasthani Gujarati Styles coming through the doed kiosk but you can see this is a this is a Shah Jahan shahjahan foliated art system so therefore you can see all of these things are coming together so it's a Shah Jahan foliated art system plus the concept of the chhatri even you have the chaja in this so chhatri or what we call as a doed kiosk is a very good example of fusion at the other Spectrum the word Ian which was used is very common in Persian designs very very common in Central Asia and it was adopted within the mugal architecture and a very good example of this is the Bulan darwaza is the bulland darwaza if you've seen basically when you make an arch which has a 3D to it just to show you that if you make an arch like this where there is 3D you basically are making an Ian Ian is a very Persian understanding of this whole concept itself so you should be very very clear about this also then you have arabisk arabisk is not something which is specific to the mugal but developed during the Delhi salut phase itself and during Delhi salut phase Arabesque was the way how Delhi Sultans actually removed the issue of human or what we call as animal representation not being allowed within Islam itself so they started to use geometric patterns and what was more interesting was they started to use Hindu motives as a way of saying that what is UN Islamic can be used and we get the beautiful form of the quranic verses also being used in kufi which is called the caligraphic way in which they are put in and also the aspects related to geometry and the aspect related to Delhi Sultans trying to evade they wanted to decorate but they wanted to evade the sanctions under Islam about it last but not the least is the pisi code this is a very interesting thing which was there or which is still there if you ever go to fatur sik when you go to fatur you'll find this pisi court it's a courtyard which is basically made like a board game and this is basically Akbar showing off Akbar was bored and therefore he developed a whole Courtyard which had these boxes looks like looks like other board games which we know but it it is called pisi because pisi is the game which was played on it pisi is the game which is played on it some of you may know it the basic point it's a board game structure fatur sik very specific to fatur sikar has not been found anywhere else with this let's look at question number 48 I hope that was good enough for your understanding and you were able to create a certain visual memory Civil Disobedience movement in 1930 Mahatma Gandhi launched a civil disobedience movement to protest against British salt Monopoly the movement aimed to oppose oppressive salt laws with nonviolent resistance and mass Civil Disobedience it covered 240 km the dandi March or 240 miles from sabarmati asham to to dandi and he made salt in the sea Waters so as to defy the British laws itself the movement permanently ended in 1931 with the Gandhi irin pact which secured some of the concessions from the British now if you know anything about CDM you will automatically know that these three statements are totally correct which is CDM was it about salt yes was it aimed with mass Civil Disobedience and nonviolent resistance yes then the concept of 240 miles the whole spectacle called the dandi match between sabarmati asham and dandi later it would have to go to darana but he will be arrested at dandi itself totally correct but again if you know CDM you would know Civil Disobedience movement happen in two phases the first phase 1 is between 1930 to 31 then comes Gandhi irin PCT and when Gandhi goes to the Second Round Table conference and in the second round Table conference now the British needed to undercut what we call as gh's influence and the minority pact comes in when he comes back from London after the deadlock was not broken he will launch the second phase of the CDM which is mostly the unsuccessful phase which is 32 to 341 in 33 he will mostly suspend it by 34 he will withdraw it but there are two phases in CDM not one so there is this word permanently written here which makes this Incorrect and only three of the statements are correct so here the word per ently automatically gives us the idea Gandhi inact was part of the struggle Tru struggle model the CDM was not going anywhere so the truce was taken in which there was an angle of Gandhi and bhat Singh and you have struggle and struggle this is a very interesting aspect of the cedm that this the only one which started truce in between and then started again unlike non-cooperation which ended with ch ch here the truce comes in between the movement itself okay question number 49 quit India movement again these movements are very important that is why we are testing your knowledge about them the quit India movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in response to the failure of the CPS Mission the movement was marked by widespread non-violent protests and minimal violent confrontation with the British authorities the Indian National Congress leadership was arrested within hours of the movement's launch the quit inter ution called for immediate withdrawal of the British from India and granted the vice Roy full powers to form an interim government now basically quit has two contexts one is that the CPS mission of 1942 will fail but also is the Japanese Onslaught in the Southeast Asian sector and therefore it is the Japanese Onslaught which becomes the immediate reason and the urgency of Gandhi itself but this statement is correct because Crips Mission also did not fail to give any form of concession as argued by javal Neu then was it marked by no or nonviolence and minimal violent confrontation this is a totally incorrect statement quit India movement is the most violent of all movements because within the hours of the quid India resolution on 8th August 9th August everybody will be every major leader will be arrested and therefore that will in turn lead to widespread violence and rampaging of the people on the streets this is incorrect this is also incorrect because it never the idea was not it was immediate withdrawal and representative government to Indians not to the vice Roy with uh the power to form an interim government so here only two statements are correct two are incorrect so here becomes only two again easy question very conceptual very very important to practice these type of questions so that you understand the movements in the larger context okay statement one statement two question new pattern HSR very very important bhat Singh the Hindustan socialist Republican Army the HSR was founded with the primary aim of establishing a federal republic of United states of India by an organized armed Revolution thereafter the H hsra was influenced by Marxist ideology and primarily sought to mobilize the peasantry and working class to overthrow the British rule through Mass Uprising and if you look at it the these two statements are self-contradictory how this is a correct statement which is the hsra talked about what we call as a United States of India and it was also it was also influenced by Marxist ideology the Russian Revolution the socialistic ideas which were coming in however here it says armed Revolution and here it says Mass Uprising which are self-contradictory other so here statement one is correct statement two is incorrect because it was not mass surprising it was individual action revolutionary action assassinations individual heroism as it is called and therefore this statement becomes incorrect if you read closely you will automatically realize the dichotomy between the two statements so that was easy further another statement with regards to statement one statement two questions consider the following statements with reference to dravida style of Temple architecture you can see art and cultures have questions have dominated please do practice art and culture it is a giveaway for the larger context of your preparation the dravidian temples were primarily constructed using brick or bricks and Timber which allowed for creation of complex and intricate structures the Davidian style of Temple architecture is characterized by prominent Towers called vimanas which are pidal in shape and have a dome like structure on them which is nothing but called the Shikara here again if you paid attention in the aodha temple question you will realize this is a correct statement this is an incorrect statement here it is D basically dravida temples are not made out of brick and Timber it is either stone or it is sandstone and it is only on Sandstone that you can do intricate carvings so here again the question is checking your Concepts and I hope you are going to make sure that your concepts are correct because conceptual questions are at least 90% of the questions don't chase the 10% of the questions which are factual you out of 16 questions if you're getting 11 to 12 13 correct you have done your job and don't take a negative in the questions which are extremely difficult or have been put in as a way of testing your ego which is that should I do these three to four questions and get a negative and lose marks okay let's look at question number 82 the uccn was in the news a very interesting question consider the following statements regarding the UNESCO creative cities Network uccn kod in carala was the first city to be designated as UNESCO city of literature guer has been designated as a UNESCO city of Music in the latest list of creative cities Network Shri nagar has been recognized under the category of city of music varar under the crafts and arts in uccn now if you have any idea about uccn you would know that this is totally correct guia guer Gana the whole music what we call as Gana system originates from guer itself so this is a correct statement first if you don't read it closely you will get it incorrect it says kod in in Kerala was the first city to be designated it does not say first city in India it says first city then the statement is in correct because parag was the first city in the world to be given this city of literature tag is it under city of uh city of literature tag for UNESCO in India yes so if it said if it has said in India then correct but it is not saying India it is a generic statement so therefore it becomes incorrect at the same point time this is also incorrect the the whole system has been reversed Shri nagar is and japur are for folk and what we call as craft Mumbai is for for the film category Chennai and R are for music Hyderabad was for Gastronomy and now we add guer and KO Cod into it guia again music category kod is the first one to get the literature in India category in that regard so there are three in music category which is Chennai ransi and guer and kod literature Shri nagar and jur for craft and folkart and Hyderabad for food which is gastronomy with this so here you have only one statement correct question number 82 question number 83 it's again a descriptive question with regards to sthal Rebellion important present and tribal generally important for the examination the sthal rebellion was led by sidhu and kanu murmu who mobilized the sthal community against the oppressive policies of the British East India Company and their agents the money lenders and the Zas the British response to sthal Rebellion included the use of military force subsequent establish of sthal p a separate administrative division to pacify the region if you have any idea of sthal both statements are 100% correct which is was it about the policies it was only the sthal and the what we call as ideas of sidhu and canu and the BAM Munda movement which did not remain within the idea of just being targeting the Agents of colonialism they were targeting colonialism itself this is a major weakness of peasant and tribal movements in India which is they were trying to cut the branches of the tree called colonialism and not realizing that it was colonialism which was the problem it was the British which was a problem and not the agents which is the zamindar the money lender the forest policies those are things which are related to colonialism but not the root cause itself so both statements totally correct okay question number 84 this is a factual question I hope you will learn this for the examination which is that was an international Museum Expo which happened in 2020 3 and it was it was where the madaro dancing girl was made as a mascot for this also and it is asking you which reflects the right announcement which happened in this Expo the Expo saw the launch of museums of India mobile app aimed at providing digital platform for showcasing India's diverse Museum collection anou between India and UNESCO for a global Heritage Museum in barari adopt a Heritage program was launched International Panel of experts try to standardize Museum practices in India itself here again if you don't have no idea you should know it is a that the Museum of India mobile app was launched so that all museums are now available digitally in your phone itself it has nothing to do with UNESCO nothing with regards to these are only standard basic statements given to redirect your orientation in the wrong direction okay question number 85 again read closely and you will realize that these questions are actually checking very small but interesting facts also the immediate cause for the Revolt of 187 was the introduction of the Enfield rifle cartridges the Revolt began with the Mutiny in the third Bengal light Cavalry in merat on 10th on 10th May 1857 the Rebellion witnessed participation of Indian rulers particularly from the prin states of Rajasthan and Gujarat it failed due to lack of unified leadership and coordination now first and foremost let's get the facts correct was it May 10th yes was it third Bengal light infantry in merat yes the barp incident is in March and this is there this is the point from where the Revolt actually starts correct was one of the immediate causes not the long-term but immediate causes the nfield rifle yes and did it fail because of no unified leadership yes however this statement is incorrect because it has the geography incorrect the Rebellion did not have the participation of princy states of Rajasthan and Gujarat rather they were more loyal to the British it is more towards avad and Bengal and Central provinces which is more pronounced than the Rajasthan and Gujarat sector so do understand this point this is the incorrect you have three statements correct but the idea is very simple you have to read closely because these type of small changes can make the question or break the the question okay question number 86 the last question vom sat Centenary very very important so again read closely when it is text Heavy you have to keep your concentration High wag launched in 1924 this is the first thing we need to check when we are looking at this question in trevenen core we have to check the geography against the practice of unability and the right to lower cast Hindus to use public road around viom Temple the viom sagra was Prim primarily led by Mahatma Gandhi and the Inc with active support from perar The viom sagra Marked a shift in the Indian national movement bringing cuse discrimination to the Forefront emphasizing the importance of social reform along with political independence with of the statements is are correct now very simply first let's check the dates this is correct Trev cor is correct then this is a correct statement totally then is it a shift does it imply a shift with depressed class reform getting becoming a part of the larger concept of gandhian movement non-cooperation Civil Disobedience yes however the primary leadership was not Mahatma Gandhi he had supported this movement it is TK madavan if you have any idea K Kalan ptk Madan they were the ones who were the pioneers of the viom attack the most successful Temple entry movement in India itself this is incorrect so the answer here is is only two so with this with this I'll hand it over to shamer he'll be taking economics and government seam questions out of the 16 questions of History I hope you were able to get at least 13 correct because the question paper was a little bit easier than before and I hope that you are making sure that art and culture and Modern India is your stronghold because at least 10 questions from this area will come for sure in the examination thank you and I hand it over to Sham sir for e e e hello and good afternoon let's start discussion on the questions which have been taken up from Indian economy as well as Government schemes question number 21 consider the following statements increase in Real gross domestic product upward Revision in labor wages increase in trade deficit how many of the above are the macroeconomic IC outcomes of demand pool inflation whenever we talk about inflation there is a demand pool inflation which will be caused because of rise in the aggregate demand in the market there can also be a cost to push inflation which will be caused because of upward revision or increased prices of the Commodities because of the supply side factors now the question says how many of the above are the outcomes of demand pull inflation if there is a demand p inflation what will be the outcome how many of them are current first one increase in Real gross domestic product now whenever you talk about GDP GDP can be measured under two heads nominal and real now whenever you talk about inflation if there is inflation obviously nominal GDP will rise up I hope you understand if the market price of the market goes up from 10 Rupees to 12 rupees nominal GDP will automatically increase but the question is not about nominal GDP it is about real GDP will the real GDP in the economy increase with demand P inflation statement one is correct with the higher demand certain production will rise up and because of the higher production the real GDP in the economy will also increase first one is correct upward revision of Labor wages if there is a demandable inflation if the market prices of the Commodities are increasing some of this particular rise in the market prices will lead to Revision in the wages if I'm a worker imagine you're the owner of the company I'm the worker I'm reporting to you now if there is a higher market price for the goods and services automatically I'll come to you I'll demand higher wages now whatever the reason is I will demand higher wages now there'll be an upward Revision in the wages of the workers second statement is correct third one increase in the trade deficit if there is a higher demand automatically the demand for the Imports will also start increasing so that will automatically lead to higher Imports being done in the domestic market and that will widen up the trade deficit and moreover if you look at this if the market prices of the Commodities will start increasing automatically the exports will become less competitive that will also lead to widening of the trade deficit so third statement is also correct question number 21 right option for question number 21 will be option C all are all the three are correct question number 22 if the Reserve Bank of India increases the repo rate then interest rate on bank loans decreases listen to me very carefully repo rate is the policy rate it's a policy rate if RBA increases the policy rate it simply means now when RBA will provide loan to Bank it will charge a higher rate of interest and if RBA will charge a higher rate of interest on the loans given to the Banks Banks will also charge a higher rate of interest on the loans given to borrowers this will basically ensure that the money supply the credit Supply in the market will start coming downwards statement one interest rate on the bank loans decreases no it will rather start increasing statement two borrowing by commercial Banks from RBI becomes cheaper absolutely wrong it becomes costlier now not cheaper third one money supply in the economy gets reduced of course yes money supply in the economy will automatically gets reduced fourth one slightly technical listen to me carefully Banks can earn higher interest on their excess funds deposited with RBI many of you simply say so statement D is also wrong I will say statement do statement D up to a certain extent is correct how so slightly technical please listen to me carefully in case of India repo rate is the most important policy rate correct it's the most important policy rate and what about the other rates such as reverse repo rate such as base rate all these rates are connected to repor rate all these are connected to repor rate if repo rate increas increases what do you think will happen to reverse repo rate the reverse repo rate automatically will also start increasing because it is a linked or it is connected to the repo rate and when the reverse repo rate increases the banks will keep the deposits with RBI and earn higher interest on it but please understand out of these two statements I'll still choose option C for a very simple reason generally that is the use of a repor rate that is the reason why repo rate is actually used in the economy to either increase or reduce money supply so right option for question number 22 will be option C money supply in the economy will get reduced let me go to question number 23 now question number 23 consider the following statements regarding the scope of activities of payment Banks payment banks are type of differentiated Banks Niche banks in case of India Reserve Bank of India promotes two types of differentiated banking systems one is a small Finance bank and the second one is a payment bank and very recently the payment banking sector as well as even the small Finance banks are there in the newspapers are there in the current affairs please be very careful the payment Banks were there in the discussion because what happened with the PTM payment Bank why are the small Finance Banks there in the current Affairs the sfbs are there in the current affairs because many of the sfbs have approached Reserve Bank of India and they have sought a path to convert into Universal Banks and RBI very recently has announced what are the conditions what are the parameters that RB will consider if an sfb has to get a license for Universal banking so both of these differentiated banks are there in the current affairs be aware of it now let's look at the statements here question number 23 payment Banks can issue credit cards absolutely no payment Banks individually I hope you understand this payment banks on their own can they issue credit cards no payment banks are not allowed to give loans but please be very careful can a payment Bank enter into an agreement with another bank let's say Universal Bank can they issue a credit card can they issue loans answer is yes first statement wrong payment Banks cannot accept NRI deposits payment Banks cannot accept NRI deposit this statement is also wrong why earlier it was not allowed now it is allowed payment banks are allowed to collect NRI deposits third one payment banks are not allowed to give loans to the general public extension of the first statement itself but the statement three is correct now so right option for question number 23 how many of the above given statements are correct right option will be option A only one of the statements are true question number 24 now consider consider the following statements regarding price stabilization Fund psf price stabilization fund the reason why psf is there in the current affairs is very simple in the last one year many Commodities government of India has kept these Commodities under psf and has started procuring or providing loans for procurement for example rice wheat earlier were not under the psf now have been brought under psf the Tomato as a commodity the prices of tomato was very very high in the market tomato has been brought under the psf So based on that a question has been asked here it was created under the Department of Economic Affairs to regulate to regulate the price volatility of important Agri horiculture Commodities statement one is wrong statement one is wrong why it was not created under Department of Economic Affairs it was created under Ministry of Consumer Affairs so first statement is wrong second one it is utilized for granting interest free advances of working capital to Central agencies to undertake Market intervention operations this is the basic idea of a psf that is under psf funds are kept these funds are issued without charging interest These funds are issued for working capital purposes for various agencies and what is the use of it they will take this funds purchase Commodities from the market when the prices are going down they will purchase Commodities so that when they will purchase the supply will be controlled prices will also be stabilized and when the supply will go down prices will start rising up in the market these agencies are expected to introduce the Commodities so as to stabilize the market price so second statement absolutely correct third one the National Bank for agriculture and rural development nabad maintains the psf as a central Corpus fund so factual statement third statement is wrong why this fund is not kept with nabard it is in fact kept with small fers agre business Consortium sfac so third statement wrong first statement wrong 24 right option will be option A only one is correct let me go to question number 25 now consider the following statements regarding the remission of Duties and taxes on exported product r o DTE scheme now before looking at the points what is an RTP scheme what is the meaning of it earlier before R dtp was implemented a reform such as GST has been imp implemented under GST many indirect taxes have been subsumed but even after that there are certain taxes which are paid by the manufacturers certain expenditures direct cost which are incurred by the manufacturers either at the state level Central level or even at the local level and these expenses such as indirect taxes there is no remission provided there is no returns provided or these taxes are not refunded to a manufacturer and if I'm a manufacturer I'm manufacturing this marker to export it and if I pay certain taxes which are not returned back to me which are not given back to me automatically I will include those taxes in the market price of the export that will basically increase the market price reduce export competitiveness and this is not going to lead to zero rating of exports and when you allow the concept of a zero rating of exports essentially out of the market price of the product none of the market price is because of the taxes there is no component of taxes in the market price of the product that Essen essentially is called as zero rating of exports in order to promote zero rating of exports government of India introduce the concept of RT before RTP there was meis there was seis there was a concern regarding these schemes government of India was a dragged to wto's dispute settlement body USA argued that when government of India can show that their per capita per capita national income is more than $1,000 then according to the agreement on subsidies and counterveiling measures India is not supposed to provide export linked subsidies but in the form of meis government of India was providing export linked subsidy hence government of India has discontinued meis seis and it has introduced Rod now let's look at the statements it was launched it was launched by the Ministry of Finance and is currently administered by the minist of Commerce and Industry now whenever you come across these kinds of initiatives please remember generally these initiatives will be launched by the respective Ministry but will be administered by minist of Finance so first statement wrong opposite rodp replace the merchandise exports incentive scheme in response to us challenging India's export subsidies under meis at WTO absolutely correct the scheme provides for a mechanism for reimbursement of taxes duties and levies which are incurred by the exporters yes either at the center state or even at the local level if you have incurred certain expenditure and if you have not received it back right they will simply provide you the remission of it fourth one the rebate is issued in the form of physical transferable scripts what do you mean by script script is like a certificate script is nothing but a certificate which will have certain value under meis and seis scripts were issued physical hard copy scripts are issued you can use the scripts to pay for import duties but under RTP physical scripts are not issued digital versions digital copies of the scripts are issued so fourth statement is wrong 25 right option will be option b only two of the statements are correct question number 26 consider the following components MSP excluding the bonus procurement incidentals cost of distribution how many of the above components constitutes economic cost of food grains what do you understand by economic cost of food grains the formula is very simple economic cost of food grains is equal to procurement cost PC is procurement cost procurement Cost Plus procurement incidentals plus distribution cost PC plus pi plus DC procurement cost essentially means when government will procure it will pay MSP and if Government of India pays a certain amount of bonus that will also be included there so the procurement cost mainly MSP and if any any bonus is paid now some of you will say Sir bonus is paid by the state government my dear if the bonus is paid by the state government it is not economic cost of food grains for the central government second one Pi procurement incidental once you pay MSP you have got food grains but you need to transport the food grain you need to bag the food grains package the food Gra you need to hire labor to do all of this load the food GS into the trucks Etc these are called as procurement incidental and once the food grain is let's say loaded onto the truck the truck will go to the warehouse cost of warehousing cost of distribution further again all of that will be considered right under the concept of distribution cost so minimum support price excluding the bonus assuming the bonus is paid by the states now so first one correct procurement incidentals yes cost of distribution yes all the three are true right option is option C all the three are correct okay question number 26 option C is the right one question number 27 consider the following statements regarding tax elasticity tax elasticity now what is this concept of a tax elasticity please understand this imagine you purchase this particular product right now in the market and government will impose a tax of 10% assuming the price that is the selling price was 100 10% on 100 rupees government would be collecting a revenue a tax receipt of 10 rupe if Government will increase the tax rate from 10% to 12% on the selling price of 100 rupee now government would be collecting a tax receipt of 12 rupees so now can I simply say with the change in the tax rate the am amount of taxes collected is also changing the measurement of this is called as tax elasticity when the tax Reeds change with the change in the tax rate it is called as tax elasticity now look at the statements tax elasticity measures the degree to which the increase in the tax rate causes the change in the tax base yes second statement tax elasticity tax elas itic it is observed more in short run especially when the taxes are raised for a quick revenue generated by the government and by the way you're supposed to find out which of the statements are incorrect now look at the second statement tax elasticity is observed more in the short run no tax elasticity is observed more in the long run not in the short run why please understand between short and longterm that is the concept here between short and longterm generally what happens is imagine the tax rate is increased by the government imagine the tax rate is increased by the government which essentially means market prices will go up and when the market prices will go up what do you think will happen to the demand for the Commodities assuming you know what is the law of demand law of demand states that price and demand are inversely related both will move in opposite direction if the price of the commodity moves upwards the quantity demanded will move downwards it has to move in opposite direction again don't look at Exceptions there are exceptions don't worry normally this is what happens but please understand this if the price of the commodity goes upwards because of the taxes imposed by the government suddenly the demand will not change suddenly the demand will not change in the market why people such as you such as me consumers in the market will take time to understand the impact of the rise in the prices that's a reason in short run things do not change in the long term things will change that is in the long term I'll realize that I cannot sustain the same consumption within the same amount I cannot sustain the same consumption with higher market prices so I will start changing the demand now I'll start changing the quantity demanded all of you okay so the statement tax elasticity is observed more in the short run no it is observed more in the long run not in the short run so second statement is wrong you're supposed to find which of the statements are not correct so question number 27 the option will be option b only two second statement is incorrect question number 28 consider the following statements International economic transactions are called as autonomous when transactions are made now whenever you talk about balance of payment B the transactions which are conducted in the Bop will be divided into two types one is called as autonomous transaction autonomous transaction and the second one is called as accommodating transaction autonomous and accommodating Transaction what is the basic difference between autonomous and accommodating transaction whenever you talk about accommodating transaction these are conducted in order to address the issue in the Bop if there is a deficit in the Bop if there is an imbalance in the Bop to address the issue of imbalance such transactions are conducted for example for example let's say RBI using the Forex reserves to bridge the deficit in the Bop so don't you think if RBI will use Forex reserves in order to address the issue can I call this as accommodating transaction but apart from accommodating there are many other transactions which are done in search of profit in search of higher income these are referred to as autonomous transactions for example imports and exports don't you think the imports and exports which are done these are done in order to earn profits these are not done in order to bridge the deficit these are done independent of the situation in the Bop now please look at the examples given here which of the following are autonomous transactions to bridge the gap in the balance of payment accommodating to earn profit autonomous when they are independent of the state of Bop when they are independent of the state of Bop when the transactions are independent of the state of the Bop yes these are also referred to as right the autonomous transactions okay so two is correct three is correct right option for question number 28 will be option b here right will be right option will be option be independent of the status of Bop done question number 29 now with reference to prime minister's employment generation program consider the following statements it is a central sector scheme of course yes the PM EGP has been launched by the government in order to basically promote msms right so understand this it is a central sector scheme yes it has been launched by Ministry of msme minist of msme micro small and medium Enterprises so question number 29 first statement is true it is implemented by Kad and Village Industries commission yes so what is the meaning of this what is the scheme all about we want to promote I hope you understand we want to promote the micro small and medium Enterprises especially the ones which right uh wherein we want to provide credit linked subsidy we want to provide credit linked subsidy up to certain limit the projects are covered and certain percentage is provided in the form of a credit linked sub subsidy of the project cost that is basically the idea of a pradan monry employment generation program so first statement is to it is implemented by kvic khadi Village Industries commission yes assistance under the scheme is provided for both Greenfield and Brownfield projects no it is not provided for both of them it is only provided for one of them okay so one is correct two is correct third one is wrong right option for question number 29 will be option b only two of them are correct let me go to question number 30 now consider the following statements regarding special economic zone yes easy special economic zone what is a special economic zone imagine this is a particular region and in this region I will identify one area I will notify this area as a special economic zone I'll call this as special economic zone the rest of the region is called as a domestic tariff area DTA domestic tariff area and what is the use of this kind of a classification whatever is produced within the scz we want to export it we want to send it across the border to other countries export promotion is the major objective of SEC policy and in order to promote exports from this region whenever it is a question of let's say taxation certain policies of the government let's say example taxation we will not impose any tariffs any taxes on the Imports are done by SC whatever Imports they're doing we will allow it to be imported without any duties reason being I want SCA to import it at lower cost without any taxes manufacture and Export it which will increase the export competitiveness of the product but please remember this if the scz will try to sell the product with within the domestic tariff area I will treat it like an import whatever benefit was given the benefit will be withdrawn that is basically the model of special economic zones now SCS are deemed to be foreign territory and allow dutyfree Imports of goods and services yes in terms of Taxation we will treat as if it is not part of India right we'll treat it as if it is a foreign teritory do not impose any taxes so first statement is correct second statement second statement the Department of Economic Affairs of the minister of Finance is responsible for the policy of ACC it is Commerce Department not Ministry of economic Affairs second statement is wrong no Northeastern State in India has an operational SE operational SE so what do you mean by operational the process is simple here first the government of India will give approval they will notify a region as SEC they will give approval this is called as notified SC once the SC is developed and the SC will start the companies will start using SC region there'll be manufacturing there'll be service sector companies located in that it is called as operational SC so there are more than 400 notified SC in India and some of them have been notified from the northeastern region somewhere around five none of these SCS are operational as of now none of them are operational so no Northeastern states in India have operational yes C is question number 30 at third statement is true right option will be option b only two of the above statements are correct okay now question number 51 in the context of economy the term factor a refers to which of the following what do you understand by the term factoring please understand imagine I'm a company I'm a micro Enterprise let's say I will sell certain raw material to you now you have promised that you will make a pay payment to me after certain number of days and according to msme act within 45 days but I want money let's say after 20 days after 25 days what should I do I've got your bill where you have promised that you'll make a payment but you're not going to make a payment right now I can use one process to get the money from the market to address the liquidity concern I can use one process it is called as a factoring process wherein I will sell the bills receivable I repeat I will sell this particular bill this is called as a receivable for me I'll sell the bills receivable to somebody else in the market a factor or a financial institution they will pay money to me this process is called as a factoring business this is referred to as a factoring business okay so statement I'm sorry question number 51 look at the statement B it is a transaction where an entity sells its reable to a third party for immediate funds for immediate release of the funds the company will sell it to somebody else let's say third party they will give the funds and some of you ask me sir why will a third party purchase it the third party will impose certain charges and collect third party will basically submit the bill to you upon the end of 45 days and collect money from you so right option for question number 51 will be statement B that's a right one question number 52 now consider the following foreign exchange loan to commercial Banks basically you'll have to find out which of the following are liabilities for RBI liabilities understand this you'll come across two terms assets and liabilities assets and liabilities what is the basic idea if something will get returns to you if something will earn money for you we will refer to this as assets and if some something will lead to outflow of money it will lead to payment from your side we'll call this as liabilities for example you go to a bank keep a fixed deposit with the bank can I simply say fixed deposit will earn money for you so for you fixed deposit will be an asset on the other side you go to the same bank apply for a loan take a loan you'll have to pay interest you'll have to pay principal it is going to lead to outflow of money for for you the loan will be a liability so in this case we have given four options you're supposed to find how many of them are assets for a bank or liabilities for RBI foreign exchange if RBI is keeping certain amount of Foreign Exchange money in ense can I simply call it as an asset correct I simply refer to this as asset RBA will provide a loan to a Commercial Bank RBA will earn rate of interest on this so that is asset so it is not a liability it is an asset currency held by the public when RBI will issue currency in return it will take something is it okay for example if you're RBI you are going to give me 100 rupees how on what basis you will give 100 rupe let's say I will give you a government security so can I simply say because you have taken government Security today right you'll have to return the government security and right the as the currency that ISU become your liability right so basically the currency held by the public any currency that is issued by RBI becomes a liability of RBI deposits of commercial banks with Reserve Bank of India these banks will keep deposit today they will withdraw the money later that is also liability so three and four are the liabilities question number 52 right option will be option b only two are correct question number 75 now which of the which of the following correctly defines the term GDP deflator GDP deflator what do you mean by GDP deflator the GDP deflator is a ratio of nominal GDP divided by real GDP it's a ratio of nominal GDP divided by real GDP but what does it indicate nominal GDP is calculated using current year market prices and the real GDP is calculated using BAS year market price and when you calculate GDP for the same year using two different prices one for base year one for current year can I simply say the representation or the comparision will tell you by how much percentage the price levels have increased correct are you I you I hope you understand this if you're taking a base year price if you're taking current year price to calculate GDP the difference is basically telling you or the ratio will tell you by how much percentage the price levels have increased because of inflation by how much percentage GDP has increased because of inflation that is basically the GDP deflator look at right statement a GDP deflator measures the price changes of all the goods and services produced within a country's border excluding imported items no right you'll have to account for imports as well as exports that is how you get the value of GDP GDP deflator is the ratio of real GDP to nominal GDP wrong exactly opposite GDP deflator reflects overall price changes in an economy and is derived by comparing nominal to real GDP right option for question number 75 will be option C let me go to question number 76 now following statements look at them if a country has a free Capital flows and an independent monetary policy it can increase its ability to maintain a fixed exchange rate please understand this there is a theory called as impossible Trinity impossible Trinity what does the impossible Trinity say it basically says if a country if a central Banker of a country has three objectives one free flow of capital independent monetary policy and a fixed exchange rate at any point of time you cannot achieve all the three you cannot achieve all the three that's the reason this is called as impossible Trinity you can achieve only two out of them you cannot achieve all the three sir how is that possible my dear if you have an independent monetary policy if you change repo rates that will lead to change in the interest rates and if there's a change in the interest rates don't you think it will either attract or will force the Investments to either come or go out of India if interest rates in India will go up you automatically expect lot of Investments to come into India so how will you be able to maintain a fixed exchange rate at that point of time so all the three are not possible you can achieve only two of them three are not possible hence this is called as impossible Trinity done so statement one can I simply say this is wrong you cannot maintain a fixed exchange rate when you have an independent monetary policy and also you allow free flow of the capital it's not possible second one if the Central Bank raises interest interest rates it will make the country's currency more attractive investors this will lead to an inflow of capital and an upward pressure in the exchange rate it's a factual statement that is if interest rates in India will go up foreign investors will be bringing dollars into India they will sell dollars they'll purchase rupees rupee value will start moving upwards rupe will start getting appreciated that is upward pressure on the exchange rate statement two is correct statement one is wrong right option for question number 76 will be option D statement two is correct but statement one is incorrect question number 77 now consider the following regarding small Finance Banks they can accept deposits and provide credit absolutely true just like a normal Bank an sfb can accept deposit from the people can provide loans as well but please be aware of this in case of small Finance Bank the PSL Target that has been kept by Reserve Bank of India is 75% 75% of the credit issued has to go to the PSL sectors and point number two at least 50% of the loans issued should be of value up to 25 lakh first statement is correct they cannot act as authorized dealers in the Foreign Exchange Market statement two is wrong RBI has allowed them what you mean by authorized dealers basically the entities which are allowed to permit exchanges or of currencies so second statement is wrong third one they are not required to maintain Capital adequacy ratios this is also wrong you're a bank you'll have to maintain Capital adequacy ratio for example you have to maintain C of 15% if you're a sfb foreign shareholding in small Finance Banks is not allowed this is also wrong up to 74% of foreign investment is allowed so only the first statement is correct right option for question number 77 will be option A only one is correct okay just a second you'll have to find which are not correct which are not correct so three statements are wrong so a will not be correct right right option will be three statements are incorrect right option will be option C here okay question number 78 it's a graphical representation of the relationship between possible rates of Taxation and resulting levels of government revenue it also suggest that revenues decline Beyond a tax rate this is best represented by right please understand the right option for this is option b laer curve now what is this concept of a laer curve laer curve is represented in an inverted U manner inverted U curve is a laer curve the basic argument is along x- axis I'll represent the tax rate and along y AIS I'll represent the receipts collected by the government the basic argument is if Government will increase the tax rate the tax revenue collected by the government will increase but this will be observed only up to certain tax rate and this is called as a optimal tax rate you'll observe this happening only up to certain tax rate if Government will increase the tax rate Beyond this tax revenues will not increase rather it will start decreasing this is basically the concept given by an economist Mr Arthur laugher again there are drawbacks to this particular model but argument is simple Beyond a certain tax rate that is optimal tax rate the argument is the taxpayers will feel the burden of Taxation rather than working more they will start taking more of leisure more of a rest hence the working will come down the earnings will come down tax collections of the government will also effectively come down so that is the reason laer curve is an inverted U curve inverted U curve question number 79 consider the following about inflation targeting inflation targeting is a fiscal policy framework underline the term fiscal policy framework where Central Bank sets a Target wrong on so many levels statement is wrong on multiple levels is it right a Target set up by Reserve Bank of India absolutely no RBI doesn't fix a Target central government fixes the target but with consultation of of Reserve Bank of India so first statement wrong Reserve Bank of India is mandated to maintain a rate of inflation of 4% with 2 percentage Point deviation in essence the maximum rate of inflation shall be 6% the lower rate of inflation shall be 2% the ceiling and the floor so these are the extreme rates second statement is correct RB is allowed to do that cost push inflation may cause a temporary blip temporary blip means what temporary rise in inflation rate why do we say that imagine the steel prices will go up because of let's say something that is happening in the Middle East crude oil prices will go up because of something happening in the Middle East this event that has led to a rise in the prices which is causing cost push inflation India is not a permanent event it is a temporary rise and that is the reason this will cause a temporary rise in the inflation once the events will become normal then the impact on inflation will also be reduced so third one correct so question number 79 right right option will be option b two of the statements are correct question number 80 consider the following statements about incremental Capital output ratio ier IC or ier what is this idea of iur please understand this the concept of iur has been derived from one more concept called as capital output ratio c r capital output ratio Capital output ratio essentially means look at the name how much Capital should you invest to get one unit of output how much Capital should you invest to get one unit of output is called as a capital output ratio but the problem with the capital output ratio is that I will take how much investment has been done in the economy for last 10 years and I will calculate how how much capital is required for getting one unit of output but that will not give me the information regarding how efficient was the investment done in the last year how efficient was the investment done in the last two years because under Capital output ratio historical investments will be covered right so that is the reason we have a better version incremental Capital output ratio and what do you mean by incremental Capital output ratio to increase the output by one unit you're producing to increase the output by one unit how much additional Capital should you invest that is called as iur incremental Capital output ratio done so statement one a lower iur right statement one a lower iur means lower ier means that a country can achieve higher economic growth with the same level of investment of course is if you're going going to invest a certain amount of money if there is a lower ier it simply means per I'm sorry to increase the output by one unit you need to spend very less amount of capital so with the lower ier imagine there are two situations in one situation the ier for one example is let's say 2 rupees or let's say 5 rupees per unit and in another example for ier it is let's say 4 rupees per unit right so investment of 5 rupee Capital per unit increase in one unit investment by 4 rupees increase the capital by 4 Rupees to get one unit if I'm investing 20 rupees in capital can I simply say in the second example I'll be able to get more output because of lower ier that is exactly is a statement one a lower ier means that more of the investment is being used for producing productive capital and less is being to use for production of non non productive Capital that is also true if you spend spending money and there's a lower ier I'm using most of this money to produce Capital which is required Capital which is needed for the growth in the economy less of the investment is going for nonproductive Capital second statement is also true in fact if you look at it both the statements both the statements are related statement one and statement two are correct and statement two is the correct explanation for statement one because I'm reducing the iur I'm using using more of the iur that is investment in capital to increase productivity that is also statement one okay so right option for this particular question number 80 will be option A let me go to question number 94 consider the following process of funds how many of the above are the sources of funds for punchayet Raj institutions in India P under the constitution of India there's article article 243 under that what what are the sources of the funding for PR are discussed the pr can get the sources of funds from different areas there can be different sources which can be used and the question is basically on that purely factual grants from the union government based on the recommendations of the Central Finance Commission of course yes if you look at the recommendation of the 15th Finance commission certain grants have been recommended to the local government first one is correct Devolution from the state governments based on the recommendations of sfb sfc that is also correct loans or grants from the union government please understand in case of the pchat Raj institutions pris they do do not get the loans or grants from the union government directly like this they do not get the loans from the union government it has to be from the state government it has to be from the state government third one is wrong program specific allocation under centrally sponsored schemes and additional Central assistance that is also one source of funding for PR in fact in addition to all of these the pris are also empowered are given the power to impose certain amount of taxes and raise the receipts from these particular taxes to use it as a source of money so these are uh the the statements which are correct 1 2 and four right option for question number 94 will be option C only three of them are correct so these are the various questions the next discussion on questions which have appeared in graphy will be taken up by m sir thank you e e e e e hello a very warm good afternoon to all of you and welcome to unacademy welcome to the discussion for the questions which have appeared in the prelims mock test from the portion of geography and environment now here in most of the questions as was in the case of the previous mock test also you'll find that the questions are a bit conceptual in nature so that being said if you would have applied yourself the question difficulty level can easily be put under the moderate category but before coming to a conclusion let us start discussion of these questions overall I hope that these discussions are turning out to be productive for you in order to understand the concepts and eliminate the errors that you have committed if you are liking this initiative of ours then please don't forget to click on the like share and subscribe to the channel and the comments regarding this initiative please do put up the comments in the comment section and let us know about what you think for the content now starting with the first question of geography which was in uh which appeared there so it was the first question consider the following statements with reference to climatic characteristics of a region so basically in these five different statements you basically have the climatic characteristics described and in the answer you have to find out which climatic condition is being talked about so it has got cold dry Winters and warm and wet Summers so that means there's a significant disparity in between the winter and the summer season so automatically with this particular aspect you can eliminate equatorial type of climate because equatorial type of climate has got a consistent temperature range throughout the year so the annual variation in temperature for the equatorial climate is very minimal but with this information from the first statement you can also be able to eliminate Mediterranean type of climate because because when we talk about Mediterranean climate what do we have we have dry Summers and rainy Winters because rainfall occurs in the Mediterranean region in the winter months why because of the shifting of the pressure belt when you have the Southward migration of the pressure bels in the winter months so that is where in the region of Mediterranean the vestes pick up and they bring and carry the moisture from the Mediterranean and cause copious amount of rainfall in the southern part of the European Landmark so here automatically with the first statement we are able to come to the two two particular options lumbering and Associated Timber paper and Pulp Industries are the most important economic resources agriculture is less important in the view of the severity of winters and its long duration now when you have a statement about severity of winters and the long duration of the winter season that again Narrows the perspective or the Narrows the type of options that you have because when you have severe Winters and long winter months that means you are talking about a higher latitude this automatically indicates the presence of higher latitudes now in higher latitudes will you experience the China type of climate no because China type of climate involves the shifting of the itcz during the Summers and the rainfall which is created during the summer months is basically because of the shifting of the itcz in China type so this is also Incorrect and ITC that we know can never occur in the higher latitudes so here summer rains occur due to shifting of the ITC okay due to the ITC and ITC can never exist in the higher latitudes so that is how automatically you are able to eliminate the options now this climatic region is found in the northern hemisphere only chinat type climate on the other hand can be found in certain stretches of the Southern Hemisphere as well fishing is the most outstanding economic activity that is fishing is an important econ e omic resource here also so all of that indicates the Laurentian type of climate Laurentian type of climate is basically somewhere in between the British type and the Siberian type British type in the sense that it is influenced by the maritime conditions that is what we refer to as the British type that everyday occurrence of rainfall Etc that is observed so there you have those characteristics during the summer months where Marine influence and Maritime influence makes it a slightly conducive and tolerable condition but then when the winter months come that is when the Siberian type of climate of extreme high pressure long dry Winters they take over so agriculture is not one of the prominent activities of the area and only some of the very sturdy and Hardy crops such as Rye such as Bley such as potatoes they can be grown but for around 6 to 7 months you don't have any cultivation carried out because the ground is covered under take blanket of snow and ice so what that means is that people in that region will always search for other additional economic activities to help them earn some income so that is why lumbering is very relevant because the forest cover is also going to be significantly dense why because in the summer months you have moisture and in the winter months when the loss of moisture is less that is when you have Dr condition so densely forested hardwood trees can be found and that is where it is used for lumbering so lenal climate is the correct answer for the first question moving on to the second question this is about the ocean circulation and the ocean currents so the first statement is consider the following statements regarding the sarasu sea so where is sarasus SE present saso SE is present in the region of Northern Atlantic and this sasos C is basically an enclosure of water body itself it is present in the region around the subtropical high pressure that is where it is present subtropical high pressure okay now subtropical high pressure means that there is absolute low wind movement exactly at the portion of the high pressure and hence that lack of wind movement means lack of water circulation also the term saso saso is derived from the Portuguese term sasum sasum which refers to seaweeds okay so this was basically discovered long time back around the 1400s and the 1500s by the Portuguese Sailors and explorers who found this entire large area being covered by seaweed and there was not such movement or any kind of movement in form of ocean currents so that is why they named it as based upon sasum they named it as saso C now while it is very significantly beneficial for the local biodiversity you will have lot of species of fishes and various different type of FAL species growing around this seed but when it comes to navigation it is a nightmare because the seaweed can often times get trapped with within the propellers of the ships and that is when the movement becomes distorted so it is the only sea without land borders that is correct sasu sea overall is surrounded by the oceanic circulation so if you consider the oceanic circulation in the northern Atlantic you have the north equatorial current North equatorial current now that is where you have the initial motion of the ocean currents aided by the trade winds now this North equatorial current moves into the Gulf Stream which is one of the strongest and the most powerful warm water currents that you will find right now this Gulf Stream then moves and movs into the North Atlantic drift Atlantic drift and then after that you have the return of the water with help of the cold Canary current now while you have this circulation in the entirety of the northern Atlantic you will find that for example the north equatorial current when it is moving it is able to drag Waters closer to it to some extent here it will be able to drag water closer to it to some extent the water next to it maybe to a little extent like that eventually As you move to the central portion of the Atlantic the movement due to the ocean current starts reducing so in this larger area you have no circulation at all and all around it there is a circulation so because of that the water level Also Rises up ever so slightly this is a fundamental driven by a geographical principle that we refer to as mman spiral and mman transport which talks about not so much relevant for your the portion of GS but then this this is the fundamental driving the sasos while upsc will ask you questions about sasos upsc doesn't ask you questions in Gs about mman transport so it is the mman transport and ikman spiral which is generated whereby what does it indicate in simpler terms that if let's suppose on the surface the movement induced in the water is like this then as you move slightly to the subsurface the movement will be less but it will be slightly bent also so let's suppose on the surface the movement is in this direction slightly on the subsurface the movement will be like this and will be lesser as you go below that again the movement will be like this so like that you will have a kind of a movement as you go into the depth somewhat like this so that means the central portion remains undisturbed it is like a funnel which is created on the surface you have the widest circulation as you go into the depth the circulation reduces and it induces a kind of a conical shape of undisturbed water that is what we refer as the sasu sea so it is the only sea without land borders is a correct statement Canary current establishes the sasu Sea's western boundary this is incorrect because Canary current is present on the eastern boundary not on the western boundary western boundary you have the presence of Gulf Stream So here the second statement is incorrect so you have to find out which of the statements given above is or are correct the answer is going to be A1 only okay now after that the next question consider the following statements continental shelf is a rich source of biodiversity petroleum and natural gas now continental shelf areas these are the regions immediately bordering the shoreline and there you have the availability of sunlight also so continental shelf area the region of continental shelf the depth is shallow isn't it so you will have shallow depth along with the shallow depth that means it will be a foric zone that means availability of sunlight and if it is a Forex Zone means biomass will be high right productivity will be high so automatically greater biodiversity and it is in these shelf regions where you will find that various different marine species the dead marine species would have been deposited and led to the formation of natural gas and crude oil over a period of millions of years so it is a rich source of biodiversity petroleum and natural gas correct overall across the oceans of the world Continental shelves are going to represent only around 7 to 8 to 9% of the entire Oceanic area think about it and listen to this carefully across the globe Continental shelves represent only around 7 to 9% of the oceanic area but they end up consisting of 90% of the biodiversity in the oceans so in the 7 to 8% of the oceanic area 90% of the biodiversity is living that that is how important these shelf areas are then you have submarine canyons which are steep-sided valleys cut into the floor of the Seas that is correct so submarine canyons they are very narrow valleys how are they created so when we talk about the submarine canyons submarine canyons basically you have this created as a result of erosion so there are two forces which are responsible one is at the mouth of larger Rivers where larger Rivers such as ganga godavari Indus they have carved out in the region of the continental shelf in the region of the continental slope a deep narrow cut Valley so mouth of larger Rivers Mississippi ganga indas Etc and second in the area where the river is not flowing but you still have the presence of these Canyon like structures and that is going to be what it is going to be the factor of turbidity current turbidity current is what it is basically the backf flow induced by the waves of mud Sand Pebbles Etc so if you consider this to be the land area let's suppose the Shelf region and let's suppose here you have water so when the waves they follow the swash and the back wash you would have also observed that many of the times these water they carry some amount of Sand Pebbles mud ooze all these gravel in the downward slope and when that flows in the downward slope often times they can gain a speed of close to around 45 to 50 kilm per hour that backf flow of these particles that is what we refer to as heridity current so that is how the submarine canyons are created so there are steep-sided valleys cut into the floor of the Seas that is correct the Continental shell found on the western coast of India is much wider than that of the eastern coast this is also correct why because when we talk about the western coast western coast has been created it is a submergent coast always remember this between the western coast western coast is known as a submergent coast and the eastern coast is referred to as emergent Coast what is the difference between them submergent means that in the region of the western gats let's suppose earlier you had a landform in the region of the western G somewhat like this this was the region of the West this was the region of the East now when Indian plate collided with the with the Eurasian Landmark the impact of the Collision was so huge while folding created the Himalayas something that we all know about but the impact was so huge it created various cracks and faults and that is when a crack was created across the western side and this portion simply underwent subsidence that is when across the western coast you had a kind of a feature somewhat like this and that is why Western gats they they are known as what they are known as an escarpment they are not known as Hills or mountains the Western GS they are an escarpment escarpment whereas the eastern coast is known as the emergent Coast that is when you talk about the region of Andra Pradesh udisha Tamil Nadu so from the time of the last ice age there has been a rise the land has slightly tilted so the portions here they have risen slightly above water so here you will observe that the Shelf area is slightly smaller but here the Shelf area is wider having said that when you take a look at the coastal regions the western coast still offers you deeper waters right up till the coastline and those deeper waters mean that it is ideally ideally situated for construction of natural ports and harbors that is why Western Co Co is considered to be much more suitable for ports and harbors whereas eastern coast is not other than the exception of vishakapatnam Port you don't have these natural ports to be present across the Eastern path for example when you consider the enor or the kraar port lot of digging and dredging is required on an annual basis to maintain that Port because it is shallow whereas the western coast deeper so here all the three statements are correct so the correct answer is C now this is a match the following with regards to the Peaks and the region where you will find them so when we talk about Mahendra giri Mahendra giri is one of the highest peaks in the region of Eastern gats having a height of close to around 1500 m is situated in the state of udisha so the first one is correctly matched then when you talk about doab beta doab beta is one of the highest peaks in the southern part of India having a height of close to around 2200 M it is to be found in the region of nir so this is incorrectly matched anai murri again is found at the Confluence of cardum anamalai and palne Hills it is not to be found in the region of nilgiris again incorrectly matched and when you talk about dupar it is a hok a hill which is significant in the region of mahad Hills so here you will find two of them are correctly matched and the remaining two they are not doab beta in the nilgiris animi at the Confluence of the cardamum anamalai and poin Hills okay now moving on to the next question associated with agriculture this crop so this is a description of the crop and we have to find out which crop is being talked about this crop is tropical as well as subtropical in nature now the crop is either grown on plantations or small Holdings wherever rainfall and sunshine are abundant now rainfall needs to be abundant Sunshine needs to be abundant so abundant rainfall and sunshine eliminates cotton right cotton is the one which requires little amount of rainfall 50 to 75 cm of rainfall sufficient for cotton right now here other than that it requires annual rainfall between 75 to 100 cm this automatically eliminates J and te because when you talk about jute and te both of them require more than 150 cm of rainfall okay both of them in jute you require the availability of rainfall distributed through the premonsoon showers into the advancement of the monsoon and going ahead in Te you require the high amount of availability of rainfall but no standing water so that is why you need sloping area sloping land needs to be available irrigation is required in the regions of low rainfall in order to compensate for the loss of water so the correct answer for this is sugar cane sugar cane growing regions in India are where you have uttar Pradesh you have Maharashtra some portions of Punjab also but nowadays there's a drastic shift where majority of the sugar crane growing regions are shifting to the South you have Karnataka telanga parts of Andra Pradesh then Maharashtra has always been dominant Tamil Nadu also has been witnessing a rise in sugar cane plantations because in the southern part of the country the conditions for growth are ideal for around almost 10 months whereas in northern part of the country the growing conditions are ideal only for around 6 to 8 months so the longer growing season in southern part means that the development is better sucr content gets higher and it is much more valuable more sugar can be extracted out of it okay now the next question consider the following statements about ocean currents the presence of warm ocean currents along the Peruvian coast results in good monsoonal rainfall in India now warm Waters near the Peruvian coast under normal conditions Peru Coast has got cold currents what is that the Humbolt or the Peru Current that is the Cold current but when you have warm water across the Peruvian coast indicates which condition it indicates elino the conditions of elino the conditions of elino means what India will receive less rains less rains in India last year we had experienced that isn't it so it results in good monsoonal rainfall incorrect then presence of canary current across the western coast of Africa can contribute to the formation of Sahara Desert we do know that cold ocean currents Across the Western margin of the continents they aid in the formation of the deserts how because they can can create in that area a condition of temperature inversion and that condition of temperature inversion means less rainfall or no rainfall at all forther facilitation of a desert condition so the second statement is correct the third statement presence of cold Labrador currents across the east coast of America freezes their ports for several months now when you talk about the northeastern coast of Africa or Northeastern coast of North America rather so in the northeastern coast of North America around the region of Labrador Sea from the higher latitude to the lower latitude you have the movement of a cold ocean current that is the labrador current now this Labrador current if you consider let's suppose the stretches of North America here let's suppose now this cold Labrador current it tucks in very close to the coastline while you have the warm Gulf Stream moving here but this cold current sneaks through here and that can create very harsh cold conditions across the eastern coast of us particularly the northeastern coast of us there the unusual harsh cold conditions which are created by the laborator current that is also what is referred to as the cold wall because it is kind of a wall cold wall which separates the mainland from the warm water of the Gulf Stream that is why it creates very harsh cold conditions so this is correct statement presence of warm motion currents across the eastern coast of South America leads to the formation of pampas Pampas are present where Pampas are present in the region of Argentina in the region of Argentina that is where you have the formation of these grasslands known as Pampas so they here in these particular areas you have these warm currents lowering the temperature not allowing the temperature to go to the extremity and that is what maintains the ideal condition for temporate grassland particularly to the south of the grand chako region in the region of Northern Argentina you have grand chako so to the south of it you have the position and the location of the Pampas so this is also correct here so how many of the above statements given above are correct you have C that is three of them are correct now the next question consider these statements about Oceanic salinity the salt content present in the oceans the highest salinity is recorded between 15° and 20° latitudes this is correct why because this is a region again of a high pressure right now in the region of high pressure precipitation or rainfall will be absolutely very low right it is a subtropical high pressure whereas the evaporation the rate of evaporation would be considerably high so overall you have a net removal of water molecules while the salt content gets left behind that is why across the globe the most salign water bodies that you will find beat Lake one be the Dead Sea beat the Salt Lake all of them are present in the region of the tropics that too when you compare between the northern and the southern hemisphere it is the northern hemisphere which has got higher level of salinity then the North Sea is located in higher latitudes and hence records minimum salinity this is incorrect North Sea does record a level of high sality condition why because North Sea is influenced by by the warm Waters brought by the North Atlantic drift and also which is a carry forward of the Gulf Stream which eventually culminates into the North Atlantic drift so these warm Waters induce a rate of evaporation and that is why it has got a higher level of salinity not a minimum salinity Black Sea records higher salinity due to high rate of evaporation this is also incorrect Black Sea overall records a lower sality level why because here in the region of Black Sea influx of river water is very high influx of river water is very high so when you have a very high influx of river waters what does that mean addition of water net addition of water molecules lowering the salinity levels the Mediterranean Sea records lower salinity due to the enormous fresh water INF flux by the rivers now this is incorrect Mediterranean Sea on the other hand records a higher sality why because again in the region of the subtropics the rate of evaporation is very high the rate of evaporation is significantly very high so that is why it is incorrect so how many of the above are correct the correct answer is going to be a that is only one which is correct the remaining are incorrect moving on to the next question consider the following statements about tsunami so what is a tsunami tsunamis are basically giant waves which are induced Whenever there is a significant disturbance in the seawat it is a Japanese term referring to a giant wave now why do you have a giant wave these giant waves can be created due to seismic events that is the shaking of the Sea of seabed in itself then also created by a massive volcanic eruption for example the Tonga eruption of 2022 in itself induced a tsunami that traveled across the Southern Pacific and impacted the people in the Peruvian Coastline so that is how even massive volcanic eruptions can also induce an Associated seic City so that can also cause tsunamis now wherever this disturbance has happened let's suppose if you consider this to be the water body the ocean rather now if there is a disturbance here due to a seesmic event now a wave will be created like a ripple effect here and will move in all directions now when you are in deeper waters the movement will be very high there's nothing obstructing the waves but let's suppose when you come in the shallower Waters there the waves hit an obstruction and that is when the speed reduces the waves break as well this is the reason why corals and coral reefs are said to be one of the natural Protectors of the coastline because they can slower or they can slow down the speed of the tsunami generated waves and they can also lead to the break of the Waves so tsunamis are is a s sudden dis placement of ocean water in the form of a high vertical wave this is correct the speed of the tsunami wave is less in the shallow water as compared to the deep ocean this is also correct because in the shallow Waters there's resistance by the Sea flow all earthquakes do cause tsunami this is an absolute statement absolute statements generally are automatically incorrect for example recently you had a massive earthquake in Taiwan but that did not trigger a tsunami warnings were issued but tsunami did not occur so this is where how many of the above statements are correct answer will be B that is two of them are correct now consider the following pairs major iron or producing regions and the state where they are located starting with the first one you have mayur ban now mayur ban Sundar these are the areas in udisha right these are rich iron ore Resort reserves which are present so mayur ban in udisha is correctly matched sundad in chattis gar incorrect sundad is also situated in the region of udisha right you have the region of Bast which is rich in the dur Bast belt in chisar which is rich in terms of iron or sing boom is present where in jarand in the region around hazaribag plateau and so on that is where you have the presence of sing boom again very rich in iron reserves so this is also incorrectly matched and then you have barari barari tumkuru chikmaglur belt in Karnataka is one of the Abundant reserves of iron ore and that to hematite ore which is present so here this is also incorrectly matched so sundad present where in udisha sing boom present where jarand bellari in Karnataka so how many of the pairs given above are correctly matched you have a that is only one in terms of iron or distribution it can be relevant for your prelims understand that when we talk about magnetite the purest form of iron ore it is to be found in the region of Karnataka Rajasthan portions of Andra Pradesh and some areas of Tamil Nadu as well when we talk about hematite hematite predominantly is found in four different belts the the four belts are the sing boom mayurban belt that is jarand udisha belt right the jarand udisha belt where you have mayurban sundad sing boom hazari Bak the entire region then you have dur Bast chandrapur belt this is Southern chattis gar and Eastern Maharashtra chandrapur is in Maharashtra then you have the tumkur chick maglor barari belt chitra dur bellari belt okay so here for example you have the kuduk Reserves kuduk which literally translates into a horse's head that is one of the most abundant reserves that you find across the country in terms of good grade of iron ore and then you have the Conan belt that is the ratnagiri Goa belt there also you have hematite so these are the major regions of iron or reserves in India so a is the answer for this one is correctly matched which of the following coal types is the lowest grade of coal with the lowest carbon content and the high moisture content so coal in terms of the carbon content is classified into four different types in terms of the abundance of carbon anthropy binus Pete and lignite now lignite is the poorest grade of coal where it still has the Woody properties the transformation has not been complete it will represent a kind of a layered structure and it will be very Woody in nature it will burn with lot of smoke very little amount of heat impurity level such as sulfur Etc will be very high okay so generally used in uh low grade industrial purposes small scale cottage industries where do you find them in the region around lur in Assam in the region around when you talk about Tamil Nadu nav region of Tamil Nadu these are the areas where you have the lignite presence so here the process of carbonifera only around 50 55 million years ago so they belong to the grade of the tertiary coal deposits Carbonic how early it begins leads to the different characteristic of the amount of carbon if the carbonifera Indonesia Australia there you have anite kind of coal if it has been initiated around 200 to 50 million years ago that is when you find binus binus in India or the gondwana great coal in India to be found in the damoda River Valley mahanadi godavari River Valley and in general in the choan nagpur and the Buster and Karnataka plateus okay so here the answer is D that is liite with reference to the Indus River consider the following statements Indus River originates from the glacier in the kalash mountain range very close to Lake manova from the bohar chu Glacier Bharu Glacier is where it originates okay it initially moves in the Northwestern Direction enters the region of ladak is joined by tributaries the small Himalayan tributaries like nubra shoke gilgit is also a sub tributary then you have for example Galvan is a subt tributary secondary tribut of Indus it joins River shoke and then shoke joins Indus then you have gilgit hunza shigar Das Kabul all of these are the small Himalayan tributaries and from the left hand side it is joined by the famous punjad jalum chinab Ravi Bas and sulage out of these chinab is the largest tributary of river Indus which meets River Indus at mitan cot in Pakistan so it originates from a glacier in kalash mountain range correct the sage is the larg largest tributary of Indus it is chinam the Indus flows in India only through the UT of Jammu and Kashmir no even through the region of ladak is where it drains so here the correct answer is a that is only one now after this we come to the portion of environment and the questions associated with the portion of environment overall in the portion of geography as you would have seen even when it comes to Mineral Resources even when it comes to Riv verse if you have the basic concepts in place this is an easy go maybe you might have committed mistakes in the dupard and Mahendra giri Hills matching but other than that it can be put under moderate category for the entire questions and the same is something that you will have in the case of environment as well so let us take a look at the questions for environment consider the following regions how many of the above regions have been classified as biodiversity hotspots now biodiversity hotspots what are those these are endangered areas of biodiversity where you have high amount of biodiversity endemism endemism is a key factor what is endemism or what is being endemic it refers to the fact that a particular species is found only in that area and nowhere else so if a particular region fulfills two two criteria that is has at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemic plants as endemic right and around 70% has been lost or the region is endangered is endangered that is when the region is declared as a biodiversity hotspot you have four biodiversity hotspots which partially or completely lie in Indian Territory you have the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot you have the Indo Burma biodiversity hotspot in the East heavily forested and also High mountainous areas then you have the Western GS and the Sri Lanka biodiversity hotspot and in the region of Great nicobar stretching from the region of Great nicobar southwards into the area of Indonesia you basically have the Sunda land and biodiversity hotspot so out of these which of the regions have been classified as biodiversity hotspot Western gats Indo Burma and Himalayas Eastern gats and lakshadweep you don't have the existence of biodiversity hotspots there so how many of them basically have been classified the correct answer is B only three now the next question consider the following countries how many of the above are Mega diverse countries IES what do we understand by Mega diversity Mega diverse countries are those where at least 5,000 species of endemic plants endemic plants right 5,000 unique species of endemic plants that indicates that the biodiversity is significant and necessarily have a marine system ecosystem Marine e ecosystem within its borders okay in the territory or in the country so the classification of Mega diverse countries is done in order to bring about increased awareness and increased accountability when it comes to the process of conservation that is why you have the Declaration of the region as Mega diverse countries Mega diverse countries they are going to is very prominent in the region of the tropics As you move away from the tropics that is where you have lesser Mega diverse countries in Europe for example you don't have mega diverse countries at all partly because of the deforestation and the hunting and the poaching which has been carried out and partly because of the colder climate not allowing so many different plant species so out of all these you'll find that other than Norway and Japan the remaining are Mega diverse countries here so how how many of the above are Mega diverse countries you will find B that is only five is the correct answer you have around 17 Mega diverse countries across the world do you need to learn all of them no what do you need to understand what are the conditions required for a country to be declared as Mega diverse okay now a passage or a paragraph type question regarding a protected area so a biosphere this biosphere Reserve lies at the southern Moon STP of Western guards spreading over the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala if it would have been Karnataka also then you could have thought about nilgiri but it is only Tamil Nadu and Kerala so nilgiri is eliminated it is the home to the kikan one of the oldest surviving tribes in the world that automatically brings you to the answer that is AUST Malai biosphere Reserve now Karan is one of the oldest surviving tribes living in that area then you have the kalakar and the mundan tiger Reserve which is a part of this biosphere Reserve here you will find Tiger Asiatic elephant and also the niri tar and that is the characteristic of the austa Malai shes chalum where it is present shes chalum is present in the region of Andra Pradesh very famous for Red Sanders Gulf of Manar where is it present in Tamil Nadu right famous for marine areas nilgiri predominantly in kataa so the locational aspect in itself will also help you reach the correct answer here okay now consider the following objectives how many of the above objectives of project lion document titled Lion at 47 2047 vision for amital so this this project lion which was initiated around 2021 that has morphed into the project lion or Lion at 47 vision for amital that what is the foreseeable future and the planning for the future for the lion species in India you have majority of the lion species or all the lion that is Asiatic lion restricted in the region of the G gear mountains or the gear ranges of Gujarat that is why the famous gear Lions right now you will find that there has been a significant amount of effort to relocate the lions in order to ensure that there is at least a locational diversity so that the lion population is not vulnerable right it is the Bara Wildlife Sanctuary which is being seen as one of the possible destination for lion relocation program so doubling the population of Asia I lions by 2025 that can never be the target of a project which was initiated around 3 years back okay scaling up livelihood generation and participation of local communities So based upon the experience of the malhari tribe in the region of Gujarat you have two of the important areas that can be relevant for your prelims one is the malhari tribe malhari tribe which lives in the girar region now they have coexisted with the lion population for centuries now they know how to behave around the Lions and the LI basically they don't get aggravated they don't bring out the man animal conflict even if their cattle are attacked by the lion species so that coexistence is very vital which indicates that conservation can be sustainable and longlasting then India becoming a Global Hub of knowledge on big cat disease Diagnostic and treatment that is also a part of the project lion and it is under the larger aim of India to be a hub of big cat population be it the Tigers be the lion be the leopard and it is with that view that India became a participant of the international big cat Alliance so here out of two and three two and three are actually correct one is incorrect so the correct answer in this case will be B that is only two now with reference to project tiger consider the following statements it is a centrally sponsored scheme of Ministry of environment forest and climate change that was launched in 1973 to protect tigers in India this is in fact correct now recently that is last year you had the culmination of the 50-year celebration of project tiger which was held at the bandipur tiger reserve and was commemorated by the prime minister's visit to the bandipur tiger Reserve so that marked the 50 years and indicated a progress around 1973 the consensus which was made was that tiger population needs to be conserved because the tiger population at that point of time was counted to be around 1,400 which was not sustainable and immediately at the backdrop of Stockholm conference where India was an active advocate of Na nature conservation project tiger was a natur natural outcome there so that is when it was launched project elephant launched much later 1992 now National Tiger conservation Authority is the implementing authority of the project tiger established as per the provisions of wildlife act 1972 this is correct basically so here this is also correct so here you will observe that ntca was formed in 2006 and it was formed as a result result of the amendment to the wildlife protection act so the wildlife protection act 1972 was amended in 2005 to make way for the constitution of ntca so ntca is a statutory organization the establishment of a tiger Reserve demarcation of a tiger Reserve is based on the recommendation of the ntca the boundary of the tiger Reserve also cannot be altered or tinkered with until you have a consultation with the ntca so that is how important ntca is so which of the statements given above is are correct here the answer is C that is both one and two okay now the next question the name of the temporate grasslands and the region where they are situated pusas in uraia no pusas is situated it is a temporate grassland situated in the region of Hungary steppies North America no stees is actually situated in Eurasia Pampas temporate grassland in Argentina correct W again grassland in South Africa correct DS grasslands in Australia correct other than this the major temperate grasslands you have prairies in North America and you have Canterbury in the region of New Zealand right these are the major major temporary grassland prairies in North America and you have Canterbury in New Zealand okay these are including all of them that is a list of all the major temporary grasslands of the world so how many of the above pairs are correctly matched you have B that is only three three of them are correctly matched then Global Forest watch is an open-source web application created by World Resources Institute with the help of Google and other such small organizations the purpose is to have the monitoring of the forest ecosystem with the help of analysis of the satellite data which gives you an idea about the tree cover change the tree cover change is an indicator of the change when it comes to the forest density and the canopy cover as well so here released by water or it is basically an open- source application so that everybody can monitor it it is by World Resource Institute then recently in India artificial reefs have been established across various coastal regions first of the coast of puducheri then of the coast of Mumbai then the off the coast of Kerala as well in this context consider the following now these artificial reefs they protect Coastline from the effect of Storms and flooding absolutely correct they boost fish resources so these artificial reath they are created how they are created by the purpose of the bioo technology borck technology right where recycled steel recycled cement Etc that is put at the Marine base and underwater and that is where you have small amount of electric charge which is passed and in that submerged mesh of Steel of concrete Etc when the small charge is passed electrolysis takes place and calcium carbonate that start settling in this calcium carbonate exoskeleton will allow the floating corals to come over firstly you have some bacterial species forming a kind of a thin film on top and then the floating corals they come they germinate here and that is when the entire coral reef system is established so that is why they will boost the fish resource also because the biodiversity will increase mitigating Shore erosion so here these artificial reefs they will weaken the impact of the Waves just we have discussed as in the case of the tsunami they will weaken the impact of the Waves so that is when when the waves themselves become weaker they're not so strong enough that is when you will experience that the coastal erosion which is a sad state of matter in regions such as Shri har Kota our satellite launch station so there the coastal erosion due to it we are losing lot of land every year so there it can be of significant help then creating high value biodiversity hotspots with the increase in biodiversity it will attract a various variety of different species flocking into that area so this is also correct so how many of the above can be the benefits of establishment of artificial reefs off the coast of India so the correct answer in this case is going to be D that is all four all four of them are the benefits okay now the next question consider the following statements regarding micr Plastics microplastics are plastic fragments less than 10 mm in length this is incorrect less than 5 mm okay now they are of two types one is the primary plastic primary microplastic which is directly emitted from the polluting sources other is a secondary microplastic where you have a large existing plastic bag maybe it has broken down it has disintegrated into smaller fragments so so the one which is directly emitted from the source of pollution that is the primary microplastic the one which is created due to the degradation of existing plastic that is what is a secondary microplastic but their size has to be less than 5 mm micro beads a type of microplastic are used as exfoliants by various Cosmetics for to health for health and beauty products right so they are used in wide variety of Cosmetics of Wellness Etc that is where micro beats slowly and steadily start impacting the skin and they penetrate the skin into the body system as well so micro beads they also have the ability to penetrate into the body system through the skin pores so this is correct microplastics have been detected in clouds also everywhere across the planet you will find the presence of plastic microplastics can accumulate in the tissue of organisms and transfer toxic chemical associated with the plastic particles to the food chain this is correct bio accumulation biomagnification and imagine if the clouds and the rainfall they also bring plastic imagine how disastrous it will be for the biodiversity particularly Marine biodiversity so here you have three statements which are correct so the correct answer is C that is only all the three of the statements are correct one is incorrect now consider the following pairs about the wildlife sanctuary and the state where it is situated you have the region of Calon in Andra Pradesh this is correctly matched then Ur nagram in Telangana this is also correctly matched why Ur nagram and Kul kundam have been in news Ur nagram has been in news oov to the region being declared or the area having cited lot of presence of tiger population and also Ur nagram has experienced forest fire in the recent past that is why it has been in news Chang it is not situated in arunachal Pradesh where is it situated it is situated in the region of ladak okay so the third statement is incorrect so how many pairs are correctly matched the answer will be B that is only two right now global East Monitor 2024 report recently seen in news is is released by which one of the following organization East report the amount of East generated in the coming years is going to quadruple as per the report so this has been released by United Nation Institute for training and research in partnership with International telecommunication Union International telecommunication Union right so that is itu okay so here B is the correct answer it is basically for this report you don't have to read into the details of it because the report is on the expected lines that overall the amount of e-w generated is increasing the processing capabilities of the countries developing countries is much less as compared to the amount of E-Waste that they are producing so that is where adaptation has to be given priority and funding and technical assistance needs to be provided to the poorer countries countries such as India is going to see almost a four-fold increase in eased production from now to the year 2050 okay now consider the following statements with reference to ecosystem Engineers what do we understand by ecosystem Engineers these are those particular species which either modify their own body systems own biological processes or they end up modifying their surrounding and that is how the entire ecosystem changes they are of two types you have autogenic engineers autogenic and you also have allogenic so autogenic for example consider a tree so when the tree grows from a sapling to a full grown tree there's a massive change in terms of its biodiv diversity that it can support for example when you have a small sapling let's suppose right now the number of species that it can host at this point of time will be very limited maybe a couple of bugs here or there couple of insects worms Etc but when you consider a full grown tree from parasites to birds the entire ecosystem will be established here so you can see that this particular species has modified its internal biological process and the ecosystem it has established because of that so that is autogenic but you have allogenic also few of the species they modify their external surroundings for example consider the case of beavers beavers are the greatest Natural Dam Builders they block the flow of water and create a stagnant water system which allows them to raise their young ones in safety so the these are allogenic they modify the ecosystem autogenic they modify themselves right so autogenic Engineers physically change biotic and abiotic materials in their habitats whereas allogenic Engineers alter their environment by making changes to their own structure it is actually the exact opposite so this is incorrect termites and earthworms are examples of ecosystem Engineers this is correct because they end up carrying huge amount of materials from wood pieces Etc and they create a new region a new ecosystem themselves corals are ecosystem Engineers because the growth of their calcium carbonate exoskeleton creates biogenic structure on which the entire ecosystem then depends that is the zanth come because of that calcium carbonate exoskeleton isn't it so this is also correct so how many statements given above are correct the answer is B that is only two then the next question consider the following statements in the context of the type of species Keystone and indicator species so keystone species are those which are very vital for the sustainance of the entire ecosystem indicator species are those which give you an idea about the health of the ecosystem you have the foundation species which establish the ecosystem like the corals and you also have the flagship species which are brands or ambassadors or mascots for a larger Global cost so keystone species is a species selected to act as an ambassador icon or symbol for defined habitat issue or campaign incorrect this description is that of Flagship species for example elephants for example pandas these are examples of Flagship species then an indicator species is a species that plays an essential role in the structure functioning and productivity of a habitat no it is a description again of keystone species example Tigers okay all the Flagship species are keystone species incorrect it is an absolute term lyans are regarded as indicator species because they act as indicators of air quality this is correct particularly the sulfur load in the air sulfur contamination in air where you have high sulfur load you will not find the presence of lyans where you have low sulfate amount that is where lyans would be present that is why it is considered to be a monitor of air pollution air pollution increases likey in population de creases so here how many of the statements are correct the answer is a that is only one okay now what is common between mandaro mahendragiri gupteswar forest and gandaman sometimes seen in news so why this is in news because recently gupteswar Forest has been declared as biodiversity heritage site all of these are situated in in udisha they are the biodiversity Heritage sites in udisha when we talk about biodiversity Heritage sites these are declared by the state government based on the recommendation of the district level biodiversity committee that you have so as per the biodiversity act you have the national biodiversity Authority State biodiversity boards and also you have the biodiversity management committee at the district level so the biodiversity management committee at the district level picks up a recommendation based on on whether you have an important Keystone specie a a different variety of a species maybe a cultural landscape which requires conservation so all these are kept in mind and then you have the recommendation sent to the state biodiversity boards and then with the prior approval the state government can declare it as a biodiversity heritage site as per the provisions of biodiversity act 2002 so the correct answer is B one of the latest additions has been the gupteswar forest in udisha Forest areas of which of the following comprise the tarai elephant Reserve tarai elephant Reserve is amongst the latest and one of the larger elephant reserves which has been declared for the conservation of elephant as the name in itself suggests it is located in the tarai region that is immediately at the foothills of the shivalik in the area of uttar Pradesh so which of the forest areas are included in that so you have P Duda kishanpur and kataria Wildlife Sanctuary situated in the entire tarai elephant Reserve here other than elephant you will find a viable tiger population also and also a population of one horned rhinos to be found in the region around Nepal also and in the surrounding area of utar Pradesh also Northern utar Pradesh so here the correct answer is a now with ref reference to mangroves consider the following statement mangroves require low solar radiation and have the ability to absorb fresh water from brackish water this is incorrect they require higher amount of solar insulation it is not as if they will require lower amount of solar insulation that is why they are to be found in the tropics and the subtropical region mangroves are salt tolerant plant communities correct found in only sub tropical intertidal regions they are to be found within the tropics as well mangroves exhibit Viv parity mode of reproduction this is correct viviparity means where let's suppose a branch of the tree you will have the sapling growing from the branch itself as it grows slightly larger then it will drop and have its own base established and then it will mature this is done in order to avoid the draining away of the young saplings by the intertidal water movement that is why they start growing within the main body stem itself udisha has the largest Mangrove cover in India no the region which is named after the mangrove tree that is a sundary mangrove tree it is Sundar buns Sundar buns in West Bengal has got largest Mangrove cover so here how many of the above statements are correct the answer is a that is only one now which one of the following best describes the process of utr fication what is utr fication utr fication is overloading of the aquatic ecosystem with nutrients nutrients such as nitrates phosphates Etc when you have that kind of an overloading which happens immediately it leads to algal species blooming harmful algal bloom happens many of these species die they are digested by the bacterium and they consume oxygen in the process of decomposition that creates water which is devoid of oxygen hypoxic Waters that is where many of the times you will find that green film on the water bodies and followed by many of the Dead Fish floating on top that means hypoxic Waters or dead zone has been created due to harmful algal bloom so when we talk about utr fication it is the excessive growth of algae in the water B bodies caused by high level of nutrients leading to oxygen depletion and harm to Aquatic Life when those organisms are being decomposed and degraded that is when a foul stench is also released in the entire process okay consider the following statements in the context of soil acidification acidification means what lowering of pH value into the acidic extent that is one of the major uh reasons of soil degradation in general so excessive application of natural uh nitrogen fertilizers to crop plants can reduce the acidification no soil acidification is a process where soil PH increases if the soil PH increases it becomes alkaline why will it become acidic incorrect soil acidification can result in the loss of soil in organic carbon correct industrial activities and intens farming contribute to soil acidification this is also correct so how many statements are correct B that is two right that is the correct statement there now after that the next question climate crisis commission that promotes appropriate effective just and nature positive nature positive and nature-based solution to the climate crisis belongs to which of the organizations so I you ucn has come up with the establishment of the climate crisis commission it is a subpart of it and it was uh a decision arrived at Marseilles in France where it was talked about the aspect of finding natural solutions such as aforestation reforestation Etc to combat the issue of climate change so it is established by IU and that brings us to the end of discussion the end of the questions overall if you think about all those questions this is a wonderful opportunity to get yourself acclimatized to the scenario of upsc and also ensure that the error rate when it comes to incorrect or correct statement that is reduced the focus has been on the basic concepts which are often times asked in the examination so I hope that this test has been helpful for you appear for the test again on 2nd of June and that will be followed by a live discussion again if you have liked this discussion please do not forget to click on the like share and the Subscribe button and leave a comment about the content overall thank you for being patient and all the best goodbye thank you

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Length: 212min 41sec (12761 seconds)

Published: Thu May 30 2024