HESI A2 Practice Test 2023 (60 Questions with Explained Answers)

welcome to the 2023 hesi A2 practice test this test will have 60 Questions with explained answers that will help you prepare for the test be sure to resuscitate the like button by turning it white question one which of the following fractions is closest to 5 8 without going over a 7 16 B 9 12. c 7 11. D two-fifths the correct answer is a 7 16. 5 8 equals 0.625 7 16 equals 0.438 9 12 equals 0.75 7 11 equals 0.636 two-fifths equals 0.4 7 16 is closest without going over question two John is on a weight loss Journey his bariatric physician told him that in order to qualify for the gastric sleeve surgery he must lose 2.5 percent of his starting weight before the surgery can be performed John's starting weight is 244 kilograms how many pounds of weight must John lose in order to qualify for the gastric sleeve surgery remember there are 2.2 pounds in each kilogram a 13. B 14.24 C 13.42 D 15.32 the correct answer is C 13.42 244 kilograms times 2.2 pounds equals 536.8 pounds John's starting weight 536.8 times 2.5 percent equals 13.42 pounds needed to lose to qualify for gastric sleeve surgery question three Braden spent 12.50 on lunch in the hospital cafeteria during his first week of work the next week he spent 17.60 on his lunch the next two weeks Braden spent 33.45 on lunch in the cafeteria what is the average expenditure on lunch each week over the last four weeks a 63.55 B fifteen dollars and 89 cents C 31.78 D 47.66 the correct answer is B 15.89 total lunch cost over four weeks equals 63.55 63.55 divided by four weeks equals 15.89 average per week question four 568.34 plus 834.345 equals a 1402.69 b 1401.79 c 1396.81 d 1 397.98 the correct answer is a 1402.69 the sum of the two integers is 1402.69 question five Susan is on a weight loss Journey after six weeks Susan lost five percent of her total body weight if Susan's starting body weight was 187 pounds how many pounds did Susan lose after six weeks a 8.75 B 5.75 c 9.35 d 7.75 the correct answer is C 9.35 187 times 5 equals 9.35 or 187 times 5 divided by 100 equals 935 divided by 100 and move the decimal from 935.00 over two spaces to make 9.35 question 6. Amy is baking a cake Amy needs four eggs for every two pounds of cake that she makes if Amy has 56 eggs how many pounds of cake can she make a 18. B 28. C 32 D 16. the correct answer is B 28. 56 eggs divided by four eggs means that Amy can make 14 cakes each cake is 2 pounds 14 times 2 equals 28 pounds question seven Kate is working at a flu shot clinic today she administered a total of 1 567 flu shots over a 14.25 hour period how many flu shots did Kate average giving per hour round to the nearest whole number a 110 B 109 C11 D 114 the correct answer is a 110 1567 shots divided by 14.25 hours equals 109.96 rounded to the nearest whole number equals 110 question 8. how many inches are in three feet a 24 B 36 C 118 D 28 the correct answer is B 36 there are 12 inches in a foot therefore 12 times 3 equals 36 inches question 9. what is the equivalent to 0.00003 a 0.0003 percent B 0.3 percent C 0.003 percent D 0.00003 percent the correct answer is D 0.00003 percent when converting a decimal to a percentage the decimal is moved two spaces to the right therefore 0.0003 equals zero point zero zero zero zero three percent or zero point zero zero zero zero zero zero three times one hundred equals zero point zero zero zero zero three percent question ten four-fifths times nine-eighths equals a nine tenths B four-fifths c 3 8 D one-half the correct answer is a nine tenths four-fifths times nine-eighths equals thirty-six fortieths divide 36 divided by four and forty divided by four to get nine tenths question eleven 3 4 times 11 tenths equals a 0.75 B 0.925 c 0.875 d 0.825 the correct answer is d 0.825 3 4 times 11 tenths equals 33 40 33 divided by 40 equals 0.825 question 12. there are 256 candies in a jar approximately 67 percent of the candies are red and the rest are green how many green candies are in the jar round to the nearest whole number a 67 B 85 C 48 D 72 the correct answer is B 85. one hundred percent minus 67 percent will give you the percentage of green candies which is 33 percent there's a total of 256 candies 256 times 33 percent equals 84.48 or rounded equals 85. question 13 the patient is having a biopsy done today what is the meaning of the underlined word a to take an image B to take a sample C to make bigger D to make spasm the correct answer is B to take a sample a biopsy occurs when a healthcare provider idmd takes a sample and sends the sample to pathology therefore a biopsy means to take a sample question 14 the patient's test results came back malignant what is the meaning of the underlined word a cancerous B B9 C healthy D unconcerning the correct answer is a cancerous malignant refers to cancer malignant cells are unhealthy concerning cells that have been invaded by cancer and may spread to other parts of the body question 15 the patient was in a Supine position what is the meaning of the underlined word a sitting B standing C lying D sideways the correct answer is C lying supine means on the back therefore if the patient is in a Supine position he or she is in a lying position question 16 the patient is having a cholecystectomy what does the suffix ectomy refer to a to cut out B to replace C to heal D to fix the correct answer is a to cut out ectomy refers to the cutting out of the word cholecystectomy has the suffix ectomy You can conclude that the patient is having something cut out during his procedure question 17. the nurse studied genealogy the suffix ology refers to what a the cutting out B the repairing of C the study of D the disease process of the correct answer is C the study of the suffix ology refers to the study of here genealogy means the study of genes question 18. the patient is seeing a pulmonologist what does the prefix Pomo refer to a stomach B heart C bones D lungs the correct answer is D lungs the prefix Pomo refers to the lungs further ologist refers to the one who studies placing these two words together one can conclude that a pulmonologist is one who studies the lungs question 19. the nurse explained to the patient that his doctor made him strict in po Nothing by mouth what does the term strict refer to a nonchalant B unconcerned C absolute D apathetic the correct answer is C absolute strict means absolute this patient's doctor placed him on a strict diet of Nothing by mouth this means the patient has to have absolutely nothing by mouth question 20. the nurse ensured that the IV line was patent before she started the patient's infusion what is the meaning of the word patent a available B clogged C clamped D inconspicuous the correct answer is a available patent means available or rights granted the nurse here is ensuring that the IV line Works before starting an infusion that will Infuse into the IV question 21. the patient came into the ER with a lethal amount of medication in his system what does the term lethal mean a small B inconsistent see deadly D incompetent the correct answer is C deadly lethal refers to the word deadly this patient came into the ER with a deadly amount of medication in his system question 22. the patient reports being inebriated last night what does the term inebriated mean a sleepy B drunk C excited D depressed the correct answer is be drunk inebriated means intoxicated or drunk the other options here do not refer to an inebriated State question 23 in the following sentence which word is a noun the dog jumped into the water to fetch the ball a dog B fetch C into D jumped the correct answer is a dog a noun is a person place or time the nouns in the sentence is dog water and ball however only dog is listed as an option to choose from question 24 in the following sentence which word is a pronoun he put on his hand to prevent his ears from getting cold a hat B cold see he D put the correct answer is C he a pronoun can function alone it refers to something or someone in this sentence he is the pronoun question 25. in the following sentence which word is an adjective the boy ran quickly to school a quickly B School C boy D ran the correct answer is a quickly an adjective explains how a verb was done in other words how was something done in the sentence the boy ran verb how did the boy run the boy ran quickly quickly is the adjective question 26 in the following sentence which word is a preposition the girl stood on the log for a long time a girl B stood C log D on the correct answer is D on a preposition is a word or group of words used before a noun pronoun or noun phrase to show direction time place location spatial relationships or to introduce an object in this sentence on is the preposition question 27 select the best word for the blank in the following sentence Florida has blank palm trees and Arkansas does a more B fewest C most D lesser the correct answer is a more the correct word to use here is more more is the word in the sentence used to describe the countable noun palm trees question 28 to the following sentences is grammatically correct a she has more candy than me B she has more candy than we see she has lesser candy than i d she has lesser candy than me foreign the correct answer is a she has more candy than me the grammatically correct sentence here is she has more candy than me lesser is not a proper term in grammar question 29 which of the following sentences is grammatically correct a she had all green candies except for one B she had all green candies except for one see she had all green candies except for one D she had all green candies except for one the correct answer is a she had all green candies except for one except means including all but the term accept means to give consent read this sentence she had all green candies to give consent for one this sentence does not make sense reading the sentence as her candy included all but one green one makes a lot more sense when reading the sentence question 30. the which word is the best option to fill in the blank to blank should I send my money to a who B whom see whose D whose the correct answer is be whom the word who is a subject pronoun and the word whom is the object pronoun in this sentence one would use the object pronoun question 31 which word in the following sentence is a conjunction Susan is on a new diet to help her lose weight but she is not enjoying the diet a Susan B new C but D she the correct answer is C but a conjunction is a word that joins together sentences Clauses phrases or words the only conjunction in the above sentence is but question 32 select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence The Bird Sings blank song each morning and the man thinks blank a beautiful song A it's it apostrophe s B it's apostrophe it's C it apostrophe s it's D it's apostrophe it apostrophe s the correct answer is a it's it apostrophe s it means belonging to it apostrophe s means it is if one were to read the sentence the Bird Sings its song each morning and the man thinks it is a beautiful song the sentence makes sense the song belongs to the bird question 33 which of the following catalyzes chemical reaction a proteins B fats C carbohydrates D enzymes the correct answer is D enzymes by lowering the activation energy and consequently raising the rate of reaction enzymes and other Catalyst work since both directions must travel through the same transition state The increased rate is the same in both the forward and reverse directions question 34 what is the smallest type of biological molecules a monomer B amino acids C nucleic acids D nucleotides the correct answer is a monomer a monomer is a common name for a single component or bead our cells are made up of strings of monomers which are the building blocks of all biomolecules for instance nucleic acids or strings of nucleotides and proteins are composed of strings of amino acids question 35 which of the following describes a process by which a cell uses a cell membrane to engulf a particle a mitosis B glycolysis C nucleosis D phagocytosis the correct answer is D phagocytosis phagocytosis occurs when a cell utilizes the cell membrane to engulf a particle cells performing this function are known as phagocytes question 36 which organ in the body stores red blood cells in the event that the body needs those cells a liver B kidneys see heart D spleen the correct answer is D spleen in the event of an emergency extra red blood cells are primarily stored in the spleen at any given time the spleen stores up to 30 percent of the body's red blood cells the destruction of worn out or damaged red blood cells is another function of the spleen upper left abdominal quadrant is where the spleen is situated question 37 white blood cells include all of the following except a monocytes B leukocytes c basophils d thrombocytes the correct answer is d thrombocytes our blood contains platelets also known as thrombocytes which are tiny colorless cell fragments that help to stop or slow bleeding our bone marrow the sponge-like tissue found inside our bones is where platelets are created question 38. what is the term for the growth plates located in the body a epiphyseal plates B metaphysis plates C metamorphosis D cartilage the correct answer is a epiphyseal plates long bones grow in the growth plate sometimes referred to as the epiphyseal plate which is a thin cartilage layer located between the epiphysis and the metaphysis the primary location for the long bones is longitudinal growth is the epiphyseal growth plate at this location cells proliferate enlarge and produce the characteristic extracellular Matrix resulting in the formation of cartilage following formation the cartilage is destroyed hardened and replaced by osseous tissue Arkansas requires the registered nurse to have a minimum of a master's degree in nursing to be eligible to sit for the board exam to obtain an APRN license specifically for the adult gerontology APRN the nurse should have a minimum of 500 practicum hours the registered nurse should also have a minimum of 2 000 hours as an RN either in Arkansas or in a compact state both classroom and practicum hours are required for the APRN license the school in which the RN attends must be accredited by the commission on Collegiate Nursing education the Arkansas State Board of Nursing recognizes the CNP CRNA CNM and CNS for prescriptive Authority a minimum of three semester hours or 45 contact hours are required in pharmacokinetics principles and practical application to be considered for APR in licensure in Arkansas the registered nurse must first hold an RN license the nurse must always hold both a RN and APRN license to practice as an APRN specifically for the adult gerontology APRN there is a minimum requirement of 500 practicum hours and 75 continuing education hours during each five-year period the continuing education hours must be in Pharmacology physical assessment and physiology the Arkansas State Board of Nursing is the regulator of all nurses in Arkansas their goal is to provide Safe Care to all patients the Arkansas State Board of Nursing Works in collaboration with the American Medical Association to ensure that all nurse practitioners are working within their scope of practice under an MD that is licensed under the Arkansas Medical Practice Act Arkansas allows for limited nurse practitioner practice this means that the nurse practitioner in Arkansas must work under a medical doctor because the APRN is only allowed to prescribe schedule three to five drugs some patients may have to make an appointment with the physician if they need drugs outside of the scope an example of a medication not approved for the APRN to prescribe is Della did or Demerol when it comes to prescriptive Authority in Arkansas the APRN must apply for prescriptive Authority separately a DEA certificate must be acquired by the APRN until one receives the full APRN license the DEA certificate number is needed if the APRN plans to prescribe controlled substances to prescribe any medications the APRN must complete a 300 hour preceptorship and must hold a collaborative agreement with a medical doctor who is licensed under the Arkansas Medical Practice Act the APRN is only allowed to prescribe medications that fall under a schedule three to five medications that fall under schedule 1 to 2 are prohibited for the APRN to prescribe the APRN must have extra continuing education hours every two year period to continue to hold prescriptive Authority in Arkansas question 39 according to the accompanying text the APRN advanced practice registered nurse must have how many practicum hours to be able to take the board exam a 400 B 500 C 600 D 750 the correct answer is B 500 the text states that the APRN must obtain a minimum of 500 practicum hours to be able to take the board exam to receive an APRN license further the nurse should have worked at least 2 000 hours as an RN to be able to sit for the exam question 40 according to the accompanying text the school that the RN decided to attend must be accredited by whom in order for the RN to receive an APRN license a the State Board of Nursing B Arkansas Medical Practice Act C Commission on Collegiate nursing education D drug enforcement agency DEA the correct answer is C Commission on Collegiate nursing education the tech States at the school in which the RN attends must be accredited by the commission on Collegiate Nursing education the Arkansas State Board of Nursing is the regulator of all nurses in Arkansas question 41 according to the accompanying text in order for the nurse to obtain prescriptive Authority as an APRN the nurse must engage in how many contact hours in Pharma kinetics A3 B 15. C 90 D 45 the correct answer is D 45 for a prescriptive Authority a minimum of three semester hours or 45 contact hours are required in pharmacokinetics principles and practical application to be considered for APR in licensure in Arkansas the registered nurse must first hold an RN license question 42 according to the accompanying text how many hours of continuing education does the APRN and gerontology need to obtain each five-year period in order to keep their APR and license up to date a 15. B 45 C 75 D 60. the correct answer is C 75 specifically for the adult gerontology APRN there is a minimum requirement of 500 practicum hours and 75 continuing education hours during each five-year period the continuing education hours must be in Pharmacology physical assessment and Physiology question 43 according to the accompanying text what is the goal of the Arkansas State Board of Nursing a culturally safety B patient education C Safe Care to all patients D cultural humility the correct answer is C Safe Care to all patients the Arkansas State Board of Nursing is the regulator of all nurses in Arkansas while all of the above answers are important the arsbn's goal is to provide Safe Care to all patients question 44 according to the accompanying text the APRN is not allowed to prescribe what schedule of drugs a three B four C2 D5 the correct answer is c 2 because the APRN is only allowed to prescribe schedule three to five drugs some patients may have to make an appointment with the physician if they need drugs outside of the scope in Arkansas the APRN must work under a medical doctor MD question 45 according to the accompanying text an APRN working in Arkansas must work under a MD medical doctor that is licensed by whom a Arkansas Medical Practice Act B Arkansas State Board of Nursing C Commission on Collegiate doctoral education D drug enforcement agency DEA the correct answer is a Arkansas Medical Practice Act the Arkansas State Board of Nursing Works in collaboration with the American Medical Association to ensure that all nurse practitioners are working within their scope of practice under an MD that is licensed under the Arkansas Medical Practice Act Arkansas allows for limited nurse practitioner practice question 46 according to the accompanying text the APRN must complete how many hours of preceptorship with an MD to be able to prescribe medications in Arkansas a150 B 700 c 300 D 550 the correct answer is c 300 to prescribe any medications the APRN must complete a 300 hour preceptorship and must hold a collaborative agreement with a medical doctor who is licensed under the Arkansas Medical Practice Act the APRN must have extra continuing education hours every two-year period to continue to hold prescriptive Authority in Arkansas pain increased medications and functional decline include just a few of the concerns that the nurse practitioner should acknowledge in the geriatric adult population in health care there are three outcomes that are imperative to the effectiveness of care better care for patients increased health for patients and decreased cost of Health Care no matter the outcome of care the care provided is only effective if it matters to the patient and is beneficial to the patient the care of a patient should be value-based when outcomes are measured and reported it Fosters Improvement and Adoption of best practices thus further improving outcomes to ensure effectiveness of care for Patients health care providers should implement the following three interventions assess pain assess and reconcile medications and observe functional decline as patients age pain is inevitable as a nurse practitioner it is imperative to assess pain of the patient in order to promote a good quality of life for the patient pain is severely under treated in the geriatric population due to the fear of opioid dependence and the idea that pain is a normal part of aging because pain is under-treated the geriatric population is prone to depression due to untreated pain Falls slower recovery after a fall or surgery desocialization and higher health care costs overall pain is the fifth Vital sign and should be assessed accordingly however because the geriatric population is prone to dementia and impaired cognition pain can be hard to assess for the health care professional when patients feel heard by the medical professional a rapport can be established between the patient and the medical professional Rapport can lead to better pain management which in turn leads to a better quality of life for the patient this cycle ultimately results in improved patient ratings when it comes to the fear of opioid addiction education provided to the patient about opioid addiction is imperative furthermore addressing cost savings if the patient's pain is being controlled effectively the patient is not going to come into the office multiple times addressing uncontrolled pain also mentioned above is the uncontrolled pain that can lead to more falls in the older adult if the patient falls and breaks a bone they may need surgery which is a major cost the cycle can be vicious ensuring an adequate pain management regimen can significantly cut down on Cost question 47 according to the accompanying text the care provided is only effective F A both the doctor and patient agree upon a treatment plan c a patient's health care plan is cost efficient see if it matters to the patient D the patient has an increased quality of life the correct answer is see if it matters to the patient in healthcare there are three outcomes that are imperative to the effectiveness of care better care for patients increased health for patients and decreased cost of Health Care no matter the outcome of care the care provided is only effective if it matters to the patient and is beneficial to the patient while the other options above are important the text specifically relates answer key to effective care question 48 according to the accompanying text to ensure effectiveness of care for Patients health care providers should Implement all of the following except a assess pain B assess and reconcile medications C observe functional decline D assess the patient's ability to feel pain the correct answer is D assess the patient's ability to feel pain according to the text to ensure effectiveness of care for patients Healthcare Providers should implement the following three interventions assess pain assess and reconcile medications and observe functional decline while D is a good option to assess this is not listed in the accompanying text question 49 what term defines the mass weighted average of the isotope masses that make up an element a atomic mass B cell Mass C atomic radius D bass radius the correct answer is a atomic mass the mass of each isotope is multiplied by its abundance to produce the atomic mass which is a weighted average of all the Isotopes of that element the sum of an element's mass number and its number of protons and neutrons is given by the formula mass number equals protons plus neutrons question 50. what is the name of the law that connects particle count to volume a Boyle's Law B Charles's Law C Doyle's law D Avogadro's Law the correct answer is D Avogadro's Law according to Avogadro's Law the total number of atoms or molecules in any gas is inversely correlated with the volume of that gas occupied at constant pressure and temperature V equals k n or V1 divided by N1 equals V2 divided by N2 is how Avogadro's equation is expressed question 51 what term defines the maximum strength of strong acid or basic that a buffer can withstand a buffer capacity B calorimetry c bond order D bond energy the correct answer is a buffer capacity buffer capacity is a unitless quantity that is calculated by dividing the amount of an acid or base required to raise the pH of a solution by one by the pH change and the volume of buffer in liters by consuming the buffer a buffer prevents pH changes caused by the addition of an acid or base question 52 what term defines a functional group made up of an o h group and a carbonyl group a carbonyl group B carboxylate ion C carboxyl Group D Catalyst the correct answer is C carboxyl group carboxyl groups also known as hydroxyl single bonded oh and carbonyl double bonded o groups are made up of two functional groups that are joined to a single carbon atom the carbonyl group C equals o and the hydroxyl group are what give the carboxyl cooh group its name they consist of amino acids and carboxylic acids question 53 what term defines the affiliation of two atoms within a molecule a chemical bond B non-chemical Bond C Atomic Bond D chemical change the correct answer is a chemical bond atoms are bound together by bonds known as chemical bonds the power that holds ions or molecules together is this force it aids the synthesis of a chemical molecule water sodium chloride and carbon dioxide are a few examples of the chemical substances that are particularly interesting to biologists question 54 which term defines the transformation of a gas into a liquid a condensation B conversion C liquefy D critical point the correct answer is a condensation the opposite of vaporization condensation is the transition of a substance from its gaseous to its liquid state the term can also refer to Cloud condensation nuclei in the atmosphere or the transformation of water vapor into liquid water when in contact with a liquid or solid surface the term cycle most frequently refers to the water cycle deposition is the term used to describe a change that occurs when a solid phase immediately changes from a gaseous phase question 55 which of the following areas does cervical refer to a neck B foot see back D arm the correct answer is a neck the neck portion of the spinal column or backbone is called the cervical spine the first seven bones make up this structure C1 to C7 the intervertebral disc spinal cord nerves muscles tendons and ligaments are other structures in or near the cervical spine question 56. if a person has O negative blood which of the following blood types may this patient receive a O Negative b a b negative c a negative D B negative the correct answer is A O Negative Blood Type O Negative individuals are referred to as universal donors a person with Type O negative blood however cannot acquire any other blood types and must receive O negative blood question 58. after blood in the heart leaves the right atrium where does it travel next a right ventricle B left ventricle C superior vena cava D aorta the correct answer is a right ventricle blood leaving the right atrium travels to the right ventricle question 57 what is the correct term for the connective tissue in the body that connects bone to bone a ligaments B cartilage C joints D tendon the correct answer is a ligaments ligaments frequently bind two bones together notably in joints they support the joint or keep the ends of the two bones together like strong securely fastened straps or ropes by doing this it is prevented that the bones in the joint would twist or separate abnormally and become dislocated question 59 what is the name of the muscle responsible for breathing a diaphragm B thorax C larynx D sternum the correct answer is a diaphragm the diaphragm rib cage muscles and abdominal muscles make up the three functional categories of respiratory muscles each group affects the chest wall and its compartments the rib cage adjacent to the lung the rib cage adjacent to the diaphragm and the abdomen question 60. which of the following is not associated with the frontal lobe of the brain a judgment B social behavior C planning D processing auditory information the correct answer is D processing auditory information the frontal lobe plays a number of important jobs and is located just beyond the forehead these include memory decision making abstract reasoning creativity social appropriateness and voluntary movement tasks thank you for watching this video we hope you enjoyed it check out these other videos that can help you with your future studies don't forget to resuscitate the like button and subscribe to our Channel and please share this video with your fellow nursing friends

Channel: All Healthcare Careers

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Keywords: hesi practice test, hesi a2 practice test, hesi practice test 2023, hesi practice questions, hesi prep, hesi practice exam, hesi practice exam 2023, hesi practice

Id: i8kF0FMbh0M

Length: 44min 31sec (2671 seconds)

Published: Fri Feb 17 2023